CME Review Courses

Price: $399.99
Duration: 30 Months of Access
Deliverables: 1,672 Board-Style Questions, 17 Hours of Video content

Preparation for the Physician Assistant National Recertification Exam (PANRE) requires a strategic approach that balances clinical experience with the specific demands of the NCCPA blueprint. Many experienced PAs approach recertification with the assumption that daily clinical practice is sufficient preparation. This is a significant error. The exam tests "book medicine" and standardized guidelines, which often diverge from the nuanced, institutionalized practices found in local hospitals or clinics.

To ensure success and maximize your educational budget, avoid these seven common pitfalls during your study cycle.

1. Ignoring the NCCPA Content Blueprint Weighting

The most frequent mistake is treating every organ system as having equal value. The NCCPA is transparent about the distribution of topics on the exam. For example, Cardiology, Pulmonology, and GI typically carry significantly more weight than Hematology or Psychiatry.

The Fix: Align your study hours directly with the blueprint percentages. If Cardiology represents 13% of the exam and Hematology only 3%, your time allocation must reflect that reality. Focus your deepest review on high-yield, heavily weighted systems to maximize your score potential.

2. Overwhelming Yourself with Too Many Resources

It is common for PAs to purchase multiple review books, subscribe to three different question banks, and listen to various podcasts simultaneously. This leads to fragmented learning and cognitive overload. You spend more time deciding what to study than actually studying.

The Fix: Select 2-3 core tools. A comprehensive review course like the PANRE Review Course provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit and over 1,600 questions, serving as a singular, robust foundation. Supplement this with one high-quality reference book.

3. Failing to Target Your Personal Weak Areas

Human nature leads us to study what we already know because it provides a false sense of security. If you work in Orthopedics, you likely find MSK questions easy. Spending 10 hours reviewing ACL tears is a waste of time if you haven't looked at an EKG or a thyroid panel in five years.

The Fix: Use a practice exam early in your preparation to identify your "knowledge gaps." Allocate 60% of your time to these weak domains. If your Cardiology scores are low, use targeted resources like the Comprehensive Guide to EKGs to bridge the gap.

4. Wasting CME Money on Courses Without Incentives

Many PAs use their employer-provided CME allowance on generic courses that offer nothing beyond the credits. Since you are required to earn these credits anyway, not maximizing the value of those funds is a financial oversight.

The Fix: Utilize a CME with Gift Card add-on. By selecting a package that includes an Amazon or Apple gift card ($100-$1500), you can purchase additional medical equipment, textbooks, or technology to further your education while staying within your professional development budget. This is a more efficient use of your allocated CME funds.

5. Neglecting High-Yield Pharmacology

Pharmacology is woven into every organ system on the PANRE. PAs often struggle with second-line treatments, contraindications, and specific side effects (e.g., which antihypertensive causes hyperkalemia vs. hypokalemia).

The Fix: Dedicate specific study blocks to pharmacotherapy. While our Pharmacology Course offers valuable Category 1 credit, remember that the 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit specifically applies to the PANRE Review Course. Use pharmacology-specific questions to drill drug classes until the "next best step" in management becomes second nature.

6. Relying on Passive Reading Instead of Active Questions

Reading a textbook from cover to cover is a low-retention activity. The PANRE is an application-based exam, not a memorization-based exam. If you cannot apply a fact to a clinical vignette, knowing the fact is useless.

The Fix: Transition to a question-first approach. For every hour spent reading, spend two hours doing questions. Reviewing the rationales for wrong answers is just as important as understanding why the correct answer is right. This builds the "test-taking muscle" required for the 4-hour traditional exam or the PANRE-LA blocks.

7. Studying "Real-World" Medicine Instead of "Board" Medicine

In your clinic, you might order an MRI for a patient with back pain because you know they won't come back for a follow-up. On the PANRE, that is the wrong answer. The exam follows strict guidelines, usually favoring the "least invasive" or "initial" step.

The Fix: When answering questions, ignore your local facility's protocols. Ask yourself: "What do the national guidelines say is the first-line diagnostic test?" and "What is the most cost-effective initial management?" This "Board Mindset" is essential for passing the exam.

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Practice Questions: Clinical Vignettes

Question 1

Your patient is a 64-year-old male presenting with acute onset of crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left jaw. He is diaphoretic. Vital signs show HR 110, BP 150/94, and SaO2 96% on room air. An EKG is performed and demonstrates 3mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Immediate administration of 324mg Aspirin
B. Start an IV infusion of unfractionated heparin
C. Administer 2L of Oxygen via nasal cannula
D. Obtain a stat portable Chest X-ray

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Immediate administration of 324mg Aspirin. In the setting of an acute STEMI, chewed aspirin is the most critical initial intervention to reduce platelet aggregation and mortality. Choice C is incorrect because supplemental oxygen is only indicated if SaO2 is <90% or the patient is in respiratory distress. Choice D is a secondary diagnostic step that should not delay reperfusion therapy or initial aspirin administration. Choice B is appropriate but typically follows aspirin and initial stabilization.

Question 2

Your patient is a 28-year-old female with a history of asthma presenting with increased shortness of breath and wheezing. She is currently using an Albuterol inhaler three times per week. She denies nighttime awakenings or interference with daily activities. Her FEV1 is 85% of predicted. Which of the following represents the most appropriate treatment adjustment?

A. Add a Low-Dose Inhaled Corticosteroid (ICS)
B. Add a Long-Acting Beta-Agonist (LABA)
/C. Continue current PRN SABA therapy
D. Start a 5-day course of Oral Prednisone

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Add a Low-Dose Inhaled Corticosteroid (ICS). According to GINA guidelines, patients using a SABA more than twice a week (but not daily) meet the criteria for Mild Persistent Asthma and require a daily controller medication, with a low-dose ICS being the first-line choice. Choice C is incorrect as it fails to address the underlying inflammation. Choice B is incorrect as LABAs should never be used as monotherapy in asthma. Choice D is reserved for acute exacerbations, not baseline management.

Question 3

Your patient is a 52-year-old male with a history of Type 2 Diabetes and Hypertension who presents for a routine follow-up. His current medications include Metformin and Lisinopril. His recent labs show a serum potassium of 5.6 mEq/L (Normal: 3.5-5.0). Which of his medications is the most likely cause of this finding?

A. Metformin
B. Lisinopril
C. Glipizide
D. Atorvastatin

Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Lisinopril. ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril interfere with the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to decreased aldosterone secretion, which results in potassium retention (hyperkalemia). Metformin (Choice A) is more commonly associated with GI upset or lactic acidosis, not electrolyte shifts. Glipizide (Choice C) causes hypoglycemia. Atorvastatin (Choice D) is associated with myalgias and liver enzyme elevations.

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And if you're a PA student or early-career clinician looking for an app-based study companion, PAtopia gives you 11,000+ board-style questions across the PANCE, PACKRAT, and all 7 EOR rotations — with instant analytics and a 3-day free trial.

Are you ready to stop making these mistakes and pass your PANRE with confidence?

Our PANRE Review Course is designed by PAs, for PAs, focusing exclusively on the NCCPA Blueprint. Gain access to 1,672 questions and 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit today.

Price: $399.99
Access: 30 Months
Credit: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 CME
Deliverables: Over 1,000 practice questions, high-yield clinical content, and optional gift card add-ons.

Choosing between the traditional PANRE and the PANRE-LA (Longitudinal Assessment) is a critical decision for every Physician Assistant approaching their recertification window. Both paths aim to ensure clinical competency, yet they require vastly different preparation strategies and time commitments. Whether you prefer a single-day, high-stakes exam or a multi-year, open-book assessment, your review materials must align with the NCCPA Blueprint to ensure success.

At CME Review Courses, we provide the resources needed for both paths. Our PANRE Review Course (100 Hours of Category 1 AAPA CME) is designed to provide the clinical depth required for the traditional exam while offering the flexible, resource-heavy content ideal for the PANRE-LA's open-book format.

The Traditional PANRE: A High-Stakes Sprint

The traditional PANRE remains the standard for PAs who prefer to "get it over with." This is a proctored, closed-book exam administered at a Pearson VUE testing center.

Structure and Constraints

The exam consists of 240 multiple-choice questions divided into four blocks of 60 questions. You are given 60 minutes per block, which averages out to 60 seconds per question. This format tests not only your medical knowledge but also your ability to manage time under pressure.

Review Strategy

Because the traditional PANRE is closed-book, your review strategy must focus on active recall and pattern recognition. You cannot rely on external resources during the test. You must memorize the "classic" presentations of diseases listed in the NCCPA Blueprint.

Our course includes two dedicated practice exams to help you simulate this environment:

The PANRE-LA: A Marathon of Excellence

The PANRE-LA is a longitudinal assessment that allows PAs to complete their recertification over three years. It is designed to move away from the "cram and forget" model, focusing instead on continuous learning and knowledge retention.

Structure and Constraints

Participants receive 25 questions every quarter for up to 12 quarters. You have 5 minutes to answer each question, and the assessment is entirely open-book. You can use any printed or online resource (excluding consultation with other individuals). NCCPA uses your best 8 quarters to determine your final score.

Review Strategy

The challenge of the PANRE-LA isn't time pressure; it’s the breadth of the NCCPA Blueprint and the need for high-quality reference material. Since you have 5 minutes per question, having an organized, digital-friendly review course allows you to quickly verify the standard of care, diagnostic criteria, or first-line treatments.

Choosing the Right Path for 2026

If you are due for recertification in 2026, your options depend on your previous enrollment. The application window for the current PANRE-LA cycle closed in late 2022. If you are currently in the PANRE-LA process, you should be focused on finishing your final quarters strong. If you did not enroll in the longitudinal option, you must take the traditional PANRE.

Both paths cover the same core content areas, including Cardiology, Pulmonology, Gastroenterology, and Musculoskeletal systems. Regardless of the format, your preparation must be rigorous.

Maximizing Your CME Budget with Gift Card Add-ons

We understand that PAs often have a dedicated CME allowance from their employers. To help you further enrich your education, we offer CME with Amazon and Apple Gift Card add-ons.

You can add a gift card ranging from $100 to $1500 to your purchase. This allows you to use your CME funds to acquire the technology or reference books you need to stay current in your practice. For example, the 100-hour PANRE Review Course can be bundled with a gift card to help you purchase a new iPad for clinical rotations or a subscription to a medical database.

Clinical Assessment: Practice Questions

The following questions are modeled after the NCCPA Blueprint and represent the level of detail required for both the PANRE and PANRE-LA.

Question 1: Cardiology

Your patient is a 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and tobacco use who presents to the emergency department with acute onset of substernal chest pain. The pain radiates to his left jaw and is associated with diaphoresis. His vitals are: BP 154/92, HR 88, RR 20, SaO2 96% on room air. An EKG is performed.

Which of the following EKG findings is most indicative of an acute posterior wall myocardial infarction?

A. ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF
B. ST-segment depression in leads V1 through V3 with tall R waves
C. Left bundle branch block of unknown age
D. ST-segment elevation in leads V1 through V4

Correct Answer: B. ST-segment depression in leads V1 through V3 with tall R waves.

Explanation: In a posterior wall MI, the EKG changes in the precordial leads (V1-V3) are "mirror images" of what would be seen with a standard lead over the posterior wall. This includes ST-segment depression (mirroring elevation), tall R waves (mirroring Q waves), and upright T waves. Lead II, III, and aVF (Choice A) indicate an inferior wall MI. Choice D indicates an anterior wall MI.

Question 2: Pulmonology

Your patient is a 24-year-old female with a history of asthma who presents with increased shortness of breath and wheezing over the last 48 hours. She has been using her albuterol inhaler every 3 hours with minimal relief. On physical exam, she is using accessory muscles to breathe. Her peak expiratory flow (PEF) is 55% of her personal best.

According to the current guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) for daily use
B. Administer oral corticosteroids and escalate SABA frequency
C. Discharge home with a 2-week course of inhaled corticosteroids
D. Order a CT pulmonary angiogram to rule out pulmonary embolism

Correct Answer: B. Administer oral corticosteroids and escalate SABA frequency.

Explanation: This patient is experiencing a moderate-to-severe asthma exacerbation (PEF <60% and accessory muscle use). Systemic corticosteroids are indicated to reduce airway inflammation and prevent relapse. LABAs (Choice A) should never be used as monotherapy and are not for acute exacerbations. CTPA (Choice D) is not indicated unless there is high clinical suspicion for PE, which is not suggested by this classic asthma presentation.

Question 3: Infectious Disease

Your patient is a 32-year-old male presenting with a 3-day history of fever, chills, and a productive cough with "rust-colored" sputum. On auscultation, you hear crackles in the right lower lobe. A chest X-ray confirms right lower lobe consolidation.

What is the most likely causative organism for this patient's presentation?

A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Legionella pneumophila

Correct Answer: B. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Explanation: Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and is classically associated with "rust-colored" sputum and lobar consolidation. Klebsiella (Choice C) is more common in patients with alcohol use disorder and is associated with "currant jelly" sputum. Mycoplasma (Choice A) typically presents as "walking pneumonia" with more diffuse infiltrates.

Final Recommendations

Choosing between the PANRE and PANRE-LA depends on your personal learning style and the flexibility of your schedule. However, your review course remains the constant factor in your success.

The PANRE Review Course (100 Hours of Category 1 AAPA CME) provides the rigorous clinical vignettes and comprehensive content coverage required to master the NCCPA Blueprint. By choosing a package with an Amazon or Apple gift card add-on, you can ensure your CME money is working for you both in the classroom and in your clinical practice.

For physician assistants (PAs), nurse practitioners (NPs), and physicians, managing a CME stipend is a critical part of professional maintenance. You are often provided an annual allowance to ensure your medical knowledge remains current and your certifications are maintained. However, not all CME programs are created equal. One of the most efficient ways to utilize these funds is through a CME package that includes a gift card add-on.

At CME Review Courses, we specialize in providing high-yield, peer-reviewed content that meets the rigorous standards of the NCCPA and other certifying bodies, while offering the added benefit of Amazon or Apple gift cards.

Logistical Details for CME with Gift Card Packages:

• Price: Packages start at $399.99.
• Duration: Most packages include 30 months of access to ensure you can complete your hours at your own pace.
• Deliverables: Up to 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit (specifically for the PANRE Review Course), comprehensive practice questions, and peer-developed clinical content.
• Gift Card Options: Amazon and Apple gift cards ranging from $100 to $1,500.

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1. What Exactly is CME with a Gift Card?

A CME with a gift card program allows you to purchase accredited medical education and add a promotional gift card to your order. This is a common practice in the industry that allows clinicians to maximize their employer-provided education budget. You receive the high-quality educational material you need to stay current in your practice, and you receive a gift card that can be used to further enrich your professional life with tools like new medical tablets, reference books, or high-quality stethoscopes.

2. How the Add-On System Works

The process is designed to be efficient. When you select a course, such as our PANRE Review Course, you have the option to include a gift card add-on. You choose the value: anywhere from $100 to $1,500: and this amount is added to the total cost of your CME package.

3. Flexibility of Gift Card Choice

We offer two of the most versatile gift card options available: Amazon and Apple.

• Amazon Gift Cards: Ideal for purchasing physical medical books, scrubs, or office supplies.
• Apple Gift Cards: Perfect for PAs and NPs who use iPads for charting or want to upgrade their mobile medical apps.

4. Maximizing Your CME Stipend

Many healthcare institutions provide a fixed annual CME budget. If you do not use it, you lose it. By utilizing a gift card add-on, you ensure that every dollar of your stipend is utilized effectively. If your stipend is $2,000 and the course is $400, adding a $1,500 gift card allows you to fully utilize your benefit while gaining access to top-tier Internal Medicine or Emergency Medicine content.

5. Accreditation Matters: AAPA Category 1 Credit

For Physician Assistants, the type of credit is paramount. Our courses are designed to meet the requirements for AAPA Category 1 Credit. This is the "gold standard" for PAs and is required for maintaining your NCCPA certification. While nurse practitioners can often claim Category 1 AAPA credit in many states, we recommend checking your specific state board requirements. For physicians, our content typically counts as Category 2 CME.

6. The 100-Hour Powerhouse: PANRE Review

The PANRE Review Course CME Package is our flagship offering. It provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 CME credit. This is specifically designed for the PA who needs a massive block of credits for their recertification cycle. It covers the entire NCCPA Blueprint to ensure you are prepared for the exam while simultaneously fulfilling your credit requirements.

7. Content Depth Across Specialties

We don't offer generic fluff. Our CME packages cover a broad range of high-yield specialties including:

• Emergency Medicine
• Family Medicine
• Internal Medicine Hospitalist
• Orthopedics
• Dermatology
• Psychiatry
• Cardiology

Each package is tailored to the specific diagnostic and management challenges found in those fields.

8. Developed by Physician Assistants for Physician Assistants

One of the unique aspects of CME Review Courses is that the content was written by PAs who understand the clinical nuances of the profession. We know the pressure of the 10-year recertification cycle and the daily demands of clinical practice. This expertise ensures the material is relevant, practical, and focused on what you actually need to know for the PANRE and your patients.

9. Long-Term Access and Efficiency

Medical practice is busy. Our packages offer 30 months of access, allowing you to chip away at your 100 hours of credit over a period of two and a half years. This flexibility is essential for busy clinicians who cannot afford to take a full week off for a live conference.

10. A Solution for Every Clinician

While our primary focus is on Physician Assistants, our value extends to the entire healthcare team.

• Nurse Practitioners (NPs): Can often use our AAPA Category 1 credits for their own certification requirements.
• Physicians: Find immense value in our Cardiology and Internal Medicine modules for Category 2 credit.
• CRNAs: Often utilize our high-yield pharmacology and emergency medicine content.

11. Looking for App-Based PA Prep? Check Out PAtopia.

For PA students and recent grads tackling the PANCE and EOR exams, PAtopia offers 11,000+ board-style questions, instant analytics, and a 3-day free trial — no account required. Learn more at cmereviewcourses.com/patopia-new-student-section/.

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Clinical Review: Practice Questions

The following scenarios are designed to reflect the clinical depth found in our CME modules.

Internal Medicine Vignette

Your patient is a 64-year-old male with a history of hypertension and Type 2 Diabetes who presents with a 2-day history of a swollen, erythematous, and exquisitely tender right first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. He denies recent trauma. His temperature is 100.2°F.

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step?

A) Serum uric acid level
B) Radiograph of the right foot
C) Arthrocentesis with synovial fluid analysis
D) Dual-energy CT (DECT) scan

Correct Answer: C) Arthrocentesis with synovial fluid analysis

Explanation: While the clinical presentation is highly suggestive of gout (podagra), arthrocentesis remains the gold standard to definitively diagnose crystalline arthropathy and, more importantly, to rule out septic arthritis. Serum uric acid levels (Choice A) can be normal during an acute gouty flare and are not diagnostic. Radiographs (Choice B) may show chronic changes like "punched-out" erosions but are not helpful in the acute phase. DECT (Choice D) is sensitive but is typically reserved for complex cases where arthrocentesis is not feasible.

Cardiology Vignette

Your patient is a 72-year-old female complaining of progressive dyspnea on exertion and one episode of near-syncope while walking up stairs. On physical examination, you note a harsh systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the right upper sternal border that radiates to the carotids. The S2 is soft.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Mitral Regurgitation
B) Aortic Stenosis
C) Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
D) Pulmonic Stenosis

Correct Answer: B) Aortic Stenosis

Explanation: The classic triad of aortic stenosis is "SAD": Syncope, Angina, and Dyspnea. The physical exam finding of a harsh systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the right second intercostal space with radiation to the carotids is pathognomonic. Mitral regurgitation (Choice A) is typically a holosystolic murmur heard best at the apex with radiation to the axilla. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (Choice C) presents with a similar murmur but would decrease in intensity with squatting (increased preload), whereas aortic stenosis would increase or stay the same.

Emergency Medicine Vignette

Your patient is a 28-year-old female brought to the ER after a motor vehicle collision (MVC). She was the restrained driver. She is complaining of severe abdominal pain. Vital signs: BP 90/60 mmHg, HR 125 bpm, RR 24 bpm, SaO2 96% on room air. Physical exam reveals a rigid abdomen and a positive seatbelt sign.

What is the next best step in management?

A) CT Abdomen/Pelvis with IV contrast
B) Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL)
C) Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST)
D) Immediate exploratory laparotomy

Correct Answer: C) Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST)

Explanation: This patient is hemodynamically unstable (hypotension and tachycardia) following blunt abdominal trauma. In an unstable patient, the goal is to quickly identify the source of bleeding. A FAST exam is the rapid, bedside test of choice. CT scan (Choice A) is only appropriate for hemodynamically stable patients. DPL (Choice B) is rarely performed now that ultrasound is widely available. While she may eventually need surgery (Choice D), the FAST exam provides the immediate evidence of hemoperitoneum required to justify surgical intervention.

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Conclusion

Selecting a CME course is about more than just checking a box for your state board. It is about choosing a program that respects your time, your clinical expertise, and your professional budget. By choosing a CME with a gift card package from CME Review Courses, you gain access to high-quality AAPA Category 1 Credit while maximizing the value of your education stipend.

Whether you are preparing for the PANRE or simply need to stay current in Hospitalist Medicine, our packages provide the efficiency and clinical depth you require.

Explore our full catalog of CME with Gift Card packages here.

Price: $399.99
Access: 30 Months
Credits: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 CME (PANRE Review) / 12 Hours of AAPA Category 1 Pharmacology CME
Questions: Extensive Question Bank Included

Staying current with pharmacotherapy is a fundamental requirement for the Physician Assistant (PA). The rapid pace of new drug approvals, updated black box warnings, and evolving clinical guidelines makes it difficult to maintain a high standard of care without a structured educational approach. Relying on sporadic journal reading or industry-sponsored brochures is insufficient for clinical excellence.

Integrating new drug updates into your practice is most effectively achieved through high-quality online pharmacology CME. CME Review Courses provides a direct, efficient path to both clinical mastery and professional compliance.

The Strategy for Integrating New Drug Updates

The primary challenge in pharmacotherapy is the volume of information. PAs must differentiate between a new drug that offers a significant clinical benefit and one that provides only marginal improvement over existing generic options.

Our Pharmacology Review CME is designed to distill these updates into actionable clinical knowledge. By utilizing an on-demand format, you can review new drug classes: such as the latest GLP-1 receptor agonists or SGLT2 inhibitors: at the moment they become relevant to your patient population.

Focus on High-Yield Pharmacology

When selecting CME to stay current, focus on the following high-impact areas:

• Mechanism of Action (MOA): Understanding the MOA of new classes helps predict side effect profiles.
• Drug-Drug Interactions: Newer medications often have unique metabolic pathways that can complicate existing regimens.
• Cost-Benefit Analysis: Integrating cost considerations and insurance coverage (e.g., prior authorizations) into your learning is essential for real-world practice.

Maximize Your CME Budget with Gift Card Add-Ons

We offer an efficient way to use your CME money. Educational budgets are often "use it or lose it" at the end of the fiscal year. To help you further enrich your education, we offer CME with Amazon and Apple Gift Card add-ons.

You can add a $100 to $1,500 Gift Card to your CME purchase. This allows you to purchase medical textbooks, equipment, or technology that supports your ongoing pharmacotherapy education.

CME for Nurse Practitioners and Physicians

While our content is written by physician assistants for physician assistants, it holds significant value for other clinicians.

• Nurse Practitioners: AAPA Category 1 CME credit may count toward your requirements depending on your specific state board. Always verify with your state regulatory agency.
• Physicians: Our courses count for Category 2 CME. Internal medicine physicians are frequent purchasers of our programs for the high-yield clinical content, particularly in preparation for their own recertification or for a comprehensive clinical refresh.

Efficient Recertification with the PANRE Review Course

If you are approaching your recertification cycle, the PANRE Review Course offers 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 CME credit. This course covers the NCCPA Blueprint extensively, including critical pharmacology updates in Cardiology, Pulmonology, and Endocrinology. This is the most efficient way to secure your required hours while ensuring you are prepared for the board exam.

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Clinical Case: Pharmacological Management of Type 2 Diabetes

Patient Demographics: Your patient is a 54-year-old female with a 5-year history of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM).
Symptoms: She reports gradual weight gain and difficulty with glycemic control despite adherence to lifestyle modifications. She denies polyuria or polydipsia.
Vitals:

• BP: 138/88 mmHg
• HR: 72 bpm
• BMI: 34 kg/m²
• HbA1c: 7.9%
  Current Medications: Metformin 1000mg BID.
  Physical Exam: Significant for abdominal obesity. No evidence of peripheral neuropathy or retinopathy.

Question: Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacological management to optimize both glycemic control and weight loss?

A) Sitagliptin
B) Glipizide
C) Semaglutide
D) Pioglitazone

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Correct Answer: C) Semaglutide

Semaglutide is the correct choice because it is a GLP-1 receptor agonist that provides both potent HbA1c reduction and significant weight loss. Given the patient’s BMI of 34 kg/m² and an HbA1c of 7.9% on metformin monotherapy, semaglutide targets the underlying pathophysiology of both her obesity and hyperglycemia.

• Sitagliptin (A) is a DPP-4 inhibitor. While it is weight-neutral and has a low risk of hypoglycemia, its HbA1c lowering efficacy is generally lower than GLP-1 agonists, and it does not provide weight loss benefits.
• Glipizide (B) is a sulfonylurea. It is associated with weight gain and a significant risk of hypoglycemia, making it a poor choice for a patient already struggling with obesity.
• Pioglitazone (D) is a TZD. While effective for insulin sensitization, it is notoriously associated with weight gain and fluid retention, which is contraindicated by the patient's clinical presentation of abdominal obesity.

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Why Choose CME Review Courses?

Our content is meticulously updated to reflect the current standard of care. Whether you are looking for the dedicated 12-hour Pharmacology Course or the comprehensive 100-hour PANRE Review, you are receiving education designed by PAs who understand the clinical realities of modern medicine.

We offer content across:

• Emergency Medicine
• Family Medicine
• Internal Medicine (Hospitalist)
• Orthopedics
• Dermatology
• Psychiatry
• Neurology
• Cardiology
• OB/GYN

Secure your CME package with a gift card add-on today and ensure your pharmacological knowledge is as current as the medications you prescribe.

Preparing for the Physician Assistant National Certifying Examination (PANCE) requires a high volume of deliberate practice and a structured approach to the NCCPA blueprint. The PANCE Prep Review & Exams App provides a comprehensive solution for PA students, combining a massive question bank with a high-yield study library. This tool is designed to move beyond simple recall, focusing on the clinical reasoning and task-based integration necessary for the 2026 exam cycle.

Logistical Details:

• Price: Free to download; $59.99 for 90-day Exam Ready Pass; $99.99 for Permanent All-Access (one-time purchase).
• Deliverables: 15 full-length mock exams, 4,500 board-style questions, and an 18-chapter study library.
• Access: Immediate digital access on iOS via the App Store, Android via Google Play, and Mac (M1/M2/M3 chips).
• CME Credit: This app is an educational tool for PANCE preparation and does not offer AAPA Category 1 CME credit. For CME credit, visit our PANRE Review Course.

A Massive 4,500 Question Bank

The core of the PANCE Prep Review & Exams App is its volume. With 4,500 questions distributed across 15 full-length exams, it is one of the most robust question banks available for PA students. Each exam is meticulously weighted to mirror the current NCCPA blueprint, ensuring that high-yield systems like Cardiovascular (11%), Pulmonary (9%), and GI (8%) receive the appropriate emphasis.

Unlike generic question banks, every question in this app includes a detailed rationale and a cited source. We prioritize evidence-based medicine by referencing specialty-society guidelines, including the ACC/AHA, ADA, IDSA, ACOG, AAN, KDIGO, GOLD, and GINA. This allows you to verify facts and understand the clinical logic behind the correct answer choices.

18-Chapter High-Yield Study Library

Content review is often fragmented between textbooks and review guides. This app integrates a full PANCE Review library consisting of 18 chapters. Each chapter is organized by organ system and includes high-yield tables, clinical figures, and EKG strips.

The library is designed for active learning. If you miss a question on a specific topic, such as valvular heart disease or acid-base disorders, the app allows you to jump directly to the corresponding chapter in the review library. This ensures your study time is spent addressing identified knowledge gaps rather than reviewing material you have already mastered.

The content in this app is authored by Jeremy Boroff, PA-C, the same expert behind the Comprehensive PANCE Review Book. While the app is a standalone tool, it carries the same authoritative, clinical voice found in our other CME Review Courses.

Advanced Analytics and the 75% Benchmark

Effective PANCE prep requires tracking your progress to identify "red flag" systems before exam day. The app’s performance analytics provide a granular breakdown of your accuracy by:

1. Organ System: Track how you perform in Cardiology vs. Dermatology.
2. Task Area: Monitor your proficiency in History & Physical, Diagnostic Studies, Diagnosis, and Health Maintenance.

A key feature is the 75% "On Track to Pass" benchmark. Maintaining a score trend at or above this level across mixed-topic exams indicates a high probability of success on the actual PANCE. You can toggle between Tutor Mode for immediate feedback during study sessions and Timed Mode to simulate the 60-questions-in-60-minutes pace of the real board exam.

Practice Clinical Vignettes

Test your knowledge with these three sample questions designed to mimic the style and difficulty of the questions found within the app.

Clinical Scenario 1: Cardiology

Your patient is a 62-year-old male with a history of hypertension and tobacco use who presents to the emergency department with acute onset of substernal chest pressure and diaphoresis. His heart rate is 102 bpm, and blood pressure is 148/92 mmHg. An EKG is performed and demonstrates 3mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.

What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Activate the cardiac catheterization lab for immediate percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
B. Administer oral beta-blocker therapy and admit for observation.
C. Order a stat CT pulmonary angiogram to rule out pulmonary embolism.
D. Perform a bedside D-dimer and discharge if negative.

Explanation: A is correct. The EKG findings are diagnostic of an inferior ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Standard of care for STEMI is immediate reperfusion therapy, preferably with primary PCI within 90 minutes of first medical contact. Beta-blockers should be avoided in the acute phase of STEMI if there are signs of heart failure or risk factors for cardiogenic shock. CT imaging and D-dimer are not indicated when the diagnosis of STEMI is clearly established by EKG.

Clinical Scenario 2: Pulmonary

Your patient is a 24-year-old female with a history of mild persistent asthma who presents with increased cough and wheezing over the past three days. She has been using her albuterol inhaler four times daily with minimal relief. On exam, she has diffuse bilateral expiratory wheezes and a pulse oximetry of 94% on room air.

According to GINA guidelines, what is the most appropriate addition to her treatment regimen?
A. Short course of oral corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone).
B. Long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) monotherapy.
C. Daily nebulized cromolyn sodium.
D. Broad-spectrum antibiotics for suspected bronchitis.

Explanation: A is correct. This patient is experiencing an asthma exacerbation that is not responding to her rescue inhaler. In cases of acute exacerbation, a short course of oral corticosteroids is indicated to reduce airway inflammation and prevent progression. LAMAs are not first-line for acute asthma rescue. Antibiotics are rarely indicated for asthma exacerbations unless there is clear evidence of a bacterial infection (e.g., fever, purulent sputum, or infiltrate on chest X-ray).

Clinical Scenario 3: Gastroenterology

Your patient is a 45-year-old female who presents with RUQ pain that began after eating a large meal. The pain is constant and radiates to her right scapula. She is febrile (101.2°F) and has a positive Murphy sign on physical exam. Laboratory studies show a leukocytosis (WBC 14,000/mm³).

What is the initial diagnostic study of choice for the suspected diagnosis?
A. Right upper quadrant (RUQ) ultrasound.
B. Abdominal MRI with MRCP.
C. HIDA scan.
D. Plain film abdominal X-ray.

Explanation: A is correct. The clinical presentation of RUQ pain, fever, and a positive Murphy sign is highly suggestive of acute cholecystitis. RUQ ultrasound is the initial imaging study of choice due to its high sensitivity for gallbladder wall thickening, pericholecystic fluid, and gallstones. A HIDA scan is typically reserved for cases where the ultrasound is inconclusive but the clinical suspicion remains high. MRI/MRCP and plain films are not the first-line diagnostic tools for acute cholecystitis.

Conclusion

The PANCE Prep Review & Exams App is the most comprehensive tool for PA students entering the final phase of their boards preparation. By combining 4,500 questions with a dedicated 18-chapter study library, it provides both the breadth and depth required for the 2026 PANCE.

Download the app today on the App Store or Google Play to start with a free exam and select review chapters. This app is part of the larger PAtopia ecosystem — the most comprehensive PA student prep platform featuring 11,000+ questions across the PANCE, PACKRAT, and all 7 EOR rotation exams. Visit cmereviewcourses.com/patopia-new-student-section/ to explore everything PAtopia has to offer. Secure your PA-C with the ultimate board review companion.

Course: PAtopia All-Access PA Review
Price: $9.99 for individual EOR bundles; competitive pricing for 12-month All-Access Pass
Duration of Access: 12 months for All-Access; Exam-specific access available
Deliverables: 11,000+ total board-style questions, 35 EOR mock exams (5 per specialty), 5 PACKRAT exams, 15 full-length PANCE exams
Trial: 72-hour full-access free trial; no credit card or account creation required

Clinical rotations are the most demanding phase of physician assistant education. While you are managing patient loads and learning procedural skills, you must also prepare for standardized End of Rotation (EOR) examinations. Success on these exams requires more than general medical knowledge; it requires a strategy aligned with the specific topic distributions mandated by the PAEA.

PAtopia is engineered to mirror these distributions exactly. By mapping every practice question to the high-yield areas defined in the NCCPA Blueprint and PAEA standards, PAtopia ensures that your study time is spent on the topics most likely to appear on your exam. Below is a specialty-by-specialty guide to how PAtopia breaks down each rotation.

1. Surgery: Navigating the 2024-2026 Shift

The Surgery EOR underwent a significant structural change in late 2024. The previous "General Surgery" focus, which was heavily dominated by gastrointestinal topics (nearly 50%), has been replaced by a more diversified Surgery exam.

PAtopia’s Surgery module is updated to reflect this shift. While GI remains a core component at 17%, the app now emphasizes surgical subspecialties and perioperative care. You will find increased coverage in trauma, acute care, and anesthesia. PAtopia ensures you are prepared for the "cross-cutting" nature of the new exam, where questions are coded to preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative settings.

Practice Scenario:
Your patient is a 45-year-old male presenting for a follow-up three days after an open cholecystectomy. He complains of calf pain and swelling. On exam, his HR is 105, BP is 130/85, and his right lower extremity is erythematous and tender to palpation.

What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Duplex Ultrasound
B. D-dimer assay
C. Immediate heparin bolus
D. Compression stockings

Explanation: Duplex Ultrasound is the correct answer. In a postoperative patient with high clinical suspicion for DVT (tachycardia, localized swelling, recent surgery), imaging is the definitive next step. A D-dimer is not useful in the postoperative setting as it will be naturally elevated due to recent surgery. Heparin should only be started after diagnosis, and compression stockings are for prophylaxis, not treatment of an active clot.

2. Emergency Medicine: High-Acuity Distribution

The Emergency Medicine EOR is one of the most broad-spectrum exams. PAtopia maps its 600 EM-specific questions (across 5 mock exams) to the organ system percentages you will face.

• Cardiovascular (20%): ACS, arrhythmias, and heart failure.
• Orthopedics/Rheumatology (15%): Dislocations, fractures, and septic arthritis.
• Pulmonology (10%): PE, pneumothorax, and asthma exacerbations.

PAtopia prioritizes the "Task Areas" of the EM exam, focusing heavily on diagnostic studies and clinical intervention, reflecting the rapid decision-making required in the ED.

3. Internal Medicine: The Heavy Hitters

The Internal Medicine EOR is characterized by depth. It focuses heavily on the management of chronic conditions and acute inpatient complications. PAtopia mirrors the heavy weighting of the cardiovascular (20%) and pulmonary (15%) systems.

Because Internal Medicine serves as the foundation for much of the NCCPA Blueprint, PAtopia’s IM questions are designed to be more complex, often requiring multi-step reasoning regarding the most appropriate long-term management or "next-best" diagnostic test for patients with multiple comorbidities.

4. Family Medicine: Primary Care Breadth

The Family Medicine EOR rewards students who understand the "bread and butter" of outpatient care. Unlike the specialty-specific exams, Family Medicine requires you to be proficient in Dermatology (15%), ENT (15%), and Infectious Disease (12%).

PAtopia’s Family Medicine bank includes 5 full mock exams that cover everything from pediatric vaccinations to geriatric hypertension management. The focus is on health maintenance and clinical therapeutics, ensuring you can differentiate between the first-line treatments for the most common primary care presentations.

5. Pediatrics: Developmental and Systemic Milestones

Pediatrics requires a different lens than adult medicine. The exam tests your ability to adjust your differential based on the patient's age and developmental stage. PAtopia organizes its pediatric content to cover:

• Respiratory: Croup, RSV, and foreign body aspiration.
• ID: Common childhood exanthems and meningitis.
• GI: Intussusception, pyloric stenosis, and malrotation.

Every PAtopia question in the pediatric section includes age-appropriate vital signs, helping you recognize "normal" versus "distress" in neonates, toddlers, and adolescents.

6. Psychiatry: DSM-5 Alignment

The Psychiatry EOR is highly predictable if you know the distributions. PAtopia breaks this down by the diagnostic clusters seen on the exam:

• Mood and Anxiety Disorders: Combined, these make up 36% of the exam.
• Substance Use and Psychosis: Critical high-yield areas that PAtopia covers with detailed clinical vignettes.

PAtopia focuses on the pharmacological management of these conditions, ensuring you know the side effect profiles and contraindications for SSRIs, antipsychotics, and mood stabilizers.

7. Women's Health (GSR): Obstetrics and Gynecology

The Gynecologic Sexual and Reproductive (GSR) exam is split between Gynecology and Obstetrics. PAtopia’s content is mapped to the standard percentages:

• Obstetrics (Prenatal and Complications): Focus on gestational diabetes, preeclampsia, and labor stages.
• Gynecology (Infections and Neoplasms): Focus on PID, cervical cancer screening, and menstrual irregularities.

Practice Scenario:
Your patient is a 28-year-old female, G1P0, at 32 weeks gestation. She presents with a headache and "spots" in her vision. Her BP is 155/95 and her urine dipstick shows 3+ proteinuria.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A. Hospitalization and Magnesium Sulfate
B. Outpatient monitoring and bed rest
C. Immediate Cesarean section
D. Administration of oral Labetalol only

Explanation: Hospitalization and Magnesium Sulfate is the correct answer. The patient meets the criteria for preeclampsia with severe features (headache, visual changes, significant proteinuria). Management requires hospitalization for close monitoring of mother and fetus and seizure prophylaxis with Magnesium Sulfate. Bed rest is no longer the standard of care for preeclampsia, and immediate delivery is usually reserved for those at 34+ weeks or with maternal/fetal instability.

Why Blueprint-Aligned Prep Matters

Using a generic question bank for EOR prep is a tactical error. If your study tool is giving you 40% gastrointestinal questions for a Surgery exam in 2026, you are wasting 23% of your study time on a topic that has been de-emphasized.

PAtopia is built by physician assistants who have taken these exams. We understand that your time on rotations is limited. By providing 5 mock exams per specialty: each containing 120 questions: we give you 600 high-yield opportunities per rotation to identify your weaknesses before you sit for the actual exam.

About the Author

Jeremy Boroff, MPAS, PA-C is a practicing Emergency Medicine Physician Assistant with 24 years of clinical experience. He is the author of multiple PA exam review books including Emergency Medicine End Of Rotation (EOR) Exam Review and Test Prep, Ace the Psychiatry & Behavioral Health EOR: The Ultimate Study Guide & Question Bank, and Gynecologic, Sexual, and Reproductive Health End of Rotation (EOR) Exam Review. As an educator and content creator, Jeremy founded CME Review Courses to help PAs pass their certification and recertification exams with high-yield, blueprint-aligned content. He is also the creator of the PAtopia app.

Access PAtopia Today

PAtopia is more than just an EOR tool; it is a companion for your entire PA school journey, including PACKRAT and the PANCE.

• 11,000+ Questions: A massive library covering every facet of clinical medicine.
• System Analytics: Track your performance by organ system and task area to see exactly where you need to improve.
• Free Trial: Download the app and get 72 hours of full access. No credit card required. No account sign-in. Just open the app and start practicing.

Download PAtopia:

• Download for iOS (Apple App Store)
• Download for Android (Google Play Store)

Stop guessing what will be on your exam. Use the app that breaks down the standards specialty by specialty.

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Physician Assistant (PA) education requires significant financial and temporal investment. Between didactic year exams, End of Rotation (EOR) assessments, and the final hurdle of the PANCE, students are often forced to commit to expensive study platforms without a clear understanding of the content quality. The PAtopia mobile application, developed by CME Review Courses, addresses this friction by offering a full-access, no-commitment trial period.

This 3-day test drive provides comprehensive access to the entire study ecosystem. There is no requirement for credit card information, no account creation, and no automated subscription billing.

Logistical Overview:

• Trial Price: $0.00
• Access Duration: 3 Days (Full Access)
• Account Requirement: None
• Total Questions: 1,125+ PANCE/PACKRAT Practice Questions
• EOR Modules: 7 Specialized EOR Exam Preps
• Platform: Available on iOS and Android

Zero-Barrier Entry: No Credit Card or Account Required

Most educational platforms utilize a "freemium" model that necessitates a credit card for a "free" trial, followed by automatic recurring charges if the user forgets to cancel. PAtopia eliminates this risk. The trial begins the moment the app is first opened on your device.

Because the app does not require a login or account, your progress and trial status are stored locally on your device. This design ensures user privacy and a seamless transition from installation to clinical review. You are not forced to provide an email address or personal contact information to access the clinical question banks or pharmacology modules.

Comprehensive Content Access during the Trial

During the 72-hour trial window, every single module in the PAtopia app is unlocked. This allows you to evaluate the clinical depth of the content across all major PA school milestones.

1. PACKRAT and PANCE Question Bank

The core of the PAtopia app is a robust bank of over 1,125 practice questions. These are not basic recall questions; they are designed to mimic the clinical vignette style of the NCCPA exams. Each question is peer-reviewed and assisted by clinical experts to ensure high-yield accuracy.

The question bank covers the full spectrum of the NCCPA Blueprint, including:

• Cardiovascular System
• Pulmonary System
• Gastrointestinal System/Nutrition
• Musculoskeletal System
• Neurology
• Psychiatry/Behavioral Health
• Endocrinology
• Reproductive Health (OB/GYN)
• Genitourinary System
• Infectious Disease
• Hematology

2. The 7 Specialty EOR Modules

For clinical year students, the PAtopia trial provides full access to specialized review modules for each of the 7 core rotations. This is critical for students preparing for End of Rotation Exams. The specialties included are:

• Emergency Medicine
• Family Medicine
• Internal Medicine
• Pediatrics
• Surgery
• Women's Health (OB/GYN)
• Psychiatry & Behavioral Health

Each module contains targeted practice questions and detailed explanations that follow the specific organizational structure of the EOR blueprints.

3. Pharmacology and CME Modules

Pharmacology is a significant portion of both the PANCE and PANRE. The PAtopia app includes a dedicated Pharmacology module. For practicing PAs using the app for review, it is important to note that CME Review Courses offers separate Pharmacology Review packages that provide AAPA Category 1 CME credit. While the app is focused on student prep, the content quality mirrors our professional-grade CME offerings.

Advanced Performance Analytics

Testing your knowledge is only half of the battle. The PAtopia app provides real-time analytics to help you identify weaknesses. During your trial, you can utilize the following tracking features:

• Category Mastery: See exactly which organ systems you are struggling with.
• Correct/Incorrect Tracking: Review the rationale for every incorrect choice to prevent future errors.
• Historical Trends: Monitor your improvement over the 3-day period as you move through different question sets.

These metrics allow for an efficient study process. If you find you are scoring 90% in Cardiovascular but only 40% in Neurology, you can pivot your study focus immediately.

Transitioning After the Trial

Once the 3-day trial period expires, the content within the app will lock. At this point, you have the option to purchase permanent access. Unlike other services, PAtopia does not use a subscription model. You pay once, and you own the content for life.

Options for continued access include:

• Individual Modules: Buy access to a single specialty (e.g., Surgery EOR).
• EOR Bundle: Unlock all 7 specialty modules.
• PAtopia All-Access Pass: A one-time purchase that unlocks the entire app permanently, including the 1,125+ question PANCE/PACKRAT bank and all specialty content.

If you are a practicing PA looking for recertification prep, we also recommend exploring the PANRE Review Course, which offers 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 CME credit. We also offer CME packages with Amazon or Apple Gift Card add-ons ranging from $100 to $1500 to help you maximize your professional development fund.

Clinical Practice Questions

To demonstrate the clinical depth of the PAtopia app, review the following vignettes.

Question 1

Your patient is a 54-year-old male presenting to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of substernal chest pressure that radiates to his left jaw. He is diaphoretic and nauseated. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 155/92 mmHg, Heart Rate (HR) of 102 bpm, and SaO2 of 96% on room air. An EKG is performed and reveals ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?

A. Left Main Coronary Artery
B. Left Anterior Descending Artery
C. Circumflex Artery
D. Right Coronary Artery

Explanation:
D. Right Coronary Artery is the correct answer. The EKG findings of ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicate an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction. The Right Coronary Artery (RCA) supplies the inferior wall of the heart in the majority of patients (right-dominant circulation).

• Choice A is incorrect as an occlusion of the Left Main Coronary Artery typically results in widespread ST-segment depression with elevation in aVR, and is often catastrophic.
• Choice B is incorrect as the Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery supplies the anterior and septal walls (Leads V1-V4).
• Choice C is incorrect as the Circumflex artery typically supplies the lateral wall of the left ventricle (Leads I, aVL, V5-V6).

Question 2

Your patient is a 28-year-old female G1P0 at 32 weeks gestation presenting with a sudden onset of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. She denies any trauma or recent sexual activity. Physical exam reveals a non-tender, soft uterus. Fetal heart tones are stable at 145 bpm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Transabdominal ultrasound
B. Digital vaginal exam
C. Immediate Cesarean section
D. Administration of oxytocin

Explanation:
A. Transabdominal ultrasound is the correct next step. The clinical presentation of painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester is highly suggestive of placenta previa. Ultrasound is the gold standard for diagnosing the position of the placenta.

• Choice B is incorrect and potentially dangerous. A digital vaginal exam should never be performed until placenta previa has been ruled out by ultrasound, as it can trigger massive, life-threatening hemorrhage.
• Choice C is incorrect as the fetal heart tones are stable and the patient is not yet hemodynamically unstable; diagnosis must precede surgical intervention.
• Choice D is incorrect as oxytocin is used for labor induction/augmentation and is contraindicated in the presence of an undiagnosed cause of third-trimester bleeding or suspected previa.

About the Author

About the Author
Jeremy Boroff, MPAS, PA-C is a practicing Emergency Medicine Physician Assistant with 24 years of clinical experience. He is the author of multiple PA exam review books including Emergency Medicine End Of Rotation (EOR) Exam Review and Test Prep, Ace the Psychiatry & Behavioral Health EOR: The Ultimate Study Guide & Question Bank, and Gynecologic, Sexual, and Reproductive Health End of Rotation (EOR) Exam Review. As an educator and content creator, Jeremy founded CME Review Courses to help PAs pass their certification and recertification exams with high-yield, blueprint-aligned content. He is also the creator of the PAtopia app.

Download PAtopia and Start Your Trial

Efficiency is paramount in medical education. The PAtopia app is designed to provide high-yield, peer-reviewed content with zero friction. Whether you are prepping for your first PACKRAT or your final PANCE, the 3-day trial allows you to verify the value of the content before spending a single dollar.

• Download on the Apple App Store
• Download on Google Play

For further questions regarding our CME packages or the PANRE Review Course, please visit our FAQ page.