CME Review Courses

Course Title: PANRE Review Course (100 Hours of Category 1 AAPA CME)
Price: $399.99 (Base price without gift card add-on)
Access: 30 Months
Deliverables: 100 Hours of Category 1 AAPA CME Credit, Comprehensive PANRE/PANRE-LA Review, High-Yield Question Bank

The mid-year mark is more than just a date on the calendar for many Physician Assistants and medical professionals. For those working within hospital systems, academic centers, or large private practices, June 30th marks the hard deadline for the fiscal year. If you have not utilized your 2026 CME stipend by midnight on June 30th, those funds often vanish, resetting on July 1st without the benefit of a rollover.

Waiting until July to begin your PANRE review isn't just a delay in studying; it is a financial and professional oversight that can cost you thousands of dollars in forfeited benefits and weeks of avoidable stress.

The Fiscal Reality: Use It or Lose It

Most employer-provided CME stipends are structured on a "use it or lose it" basis. These funds are allocated as part of your total compensation package, meant to be spent on professional development, board reviews, and educational resources.

If you wait until July 1st to purchase your PANRE Review Course, you are essentially paying for it out of your 2027 budget: or worse, out of your own pocket if you’ve already allocated your next year’s funds elsewhere. By securing your review package before the June 30th deadline, you maximize your 2026 contract benefits and keep your future stipend open for other specialty-specific needs or conferences.

The 100-Hour Advantage

The NCCPA requires PAs to earn 100 CME credits every two years. Our PANRE Review Course provides the full 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA CME credit in one comprehensive package.

When you purchase before the June deadline, you aren't just buying a study guide; you are securing your certification maintenance requirements in one efficient move. This allows you to walk into the second half of the year with your CME requirements largely satisfied, removing the "end-of-year scramble" that often occurs in December.

Enriching Your Education with Gift Card Add-Ons

One of the most efficient ways to utilize remaining CME funds is through our CME with Gift Card packages. We offer the ability to add an Amazon or Apple Gift Card (ranging from $100 to $1500) to your purchase.

These add-ons are designed to help you further enrich your education. Whether you need to purchase a new iPad for clinical rotations, medical textbooks, or updated diagnostic equipment like a digital stethoscope, these gift cards allow you to tailor your educational tools to your specific practice needs. If you leave your purchase until July, you lose the ability to apply your 2026 budget toward these essential clinical resources.

Clinical Review: Practice Questions

To succeed on the PANRE or PANRE-LA, you must be able to apply clinical knowledge to complex patient presentations. Below are several clinical vignettes designed to test your proficiency across the NCCPA Blueprint.

Cardiology Assessment

Your patient is a 68-year-old male presenting to the emergency department with a two-hour history of crushing substernal chest pain that radiates to his left jaw. He appears diaphoretic and is clutching his chest. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a 40-pack-year smoking history.

Vitals:

• HR: 105 bpm
• BP: 158/94 mmHg
• SaO2: 93% on room air
• Temp: 98.6°F

The EKG shows 3mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF with reciprocal ST depression in leads I and aVL.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Perform a bedside echocardiogram
B. Administer 324mg of chewed aspirin and activate the cardiac catheterization lab
C. Order a STAT Troponin I and wait for the results before intervention
D. Administer intravenous metoprolol

Answer: B. Administer 324mg of chewed aspirin and activate the cardiac catheterization lab.

Explanation: This patient is presenting with an acute inferior wall STEMI (ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction). In the setting of a STEMI, "time is muscle." The standard of care is immediate reperfusion therapy. Administering aspirin significantly reduces mortality in acute coronary syndrome. You must activate the catheterization lab immediately rather than waiting for cardiac biomarkers (Troponin), which can take 60 minutes or more to result and may be negative in the early stages of an infarct. Metoprolol (Choice D) should be used with caution in acute MI and is not the immediate priority over reperfusion.

Internal Medicine: Pulmonary Assessment

Your patient is a 54-year-old female with a history of COPD who presents with increased dyspnea and a productive cough over the last three days. She notes her sputum has changed from clear to greenish-yellow. She denies chest pain or lower extremity edema.

Vitals:

• HR: 92 bpm
• BP: 130/82 mmHg
• RR: 22 breaths/min
• SaO2: 89% on room air (Baseline is 92%)
• Temp: 100.2°F

Physical exam reveals diffuse expiratory wheezing and increased use of accessory muscles.

What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological intervention for this patient’s acute exacerbation?
A. High-dose intravenous corticosteroids
B. Inhaled short-acting beta-agonists (SABA) and anticholinergics
C. Maintenance therapy with a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)
D. Broad-spectrum intravenous carbapenems

Answer: B. Inhaled short-acting beta-agonists (SABA) and anticholinergics.

Explanation: The first-line treatment for an acute COPD exacerbation is inhaled bronchodilation with a SABA (like Albuterol) and a short-acting anticholinergic (like Ipratropium). While systemic corticosteroids (Choice A) are often indicated for COPD exacerbations to reduce recovery time and improve lung function, they are typically administered after or alongside initial bronchodilator therapy. Choice C is a maintenance therapy, not appropriate for acute rescue. Antibiotics are indicated for patients with increased sputum purulence and dyspnea, but initial stabilization centers on bronchodilation.

Orthopedics: Acute Injury Assessment

Your patient is a 22-year-old male who was playing basketball when he landed awkwardly on his left foot after a jump. He reports hearing a "loud pop" followed by immediate pain and swelling. He is unable to bear weight on the left leg.

Physical Exam:

• Anterior Drawer Test: Positive (increased laxity)
• Lachman Test: Positive
• McMurray Test: Negative
• Varus/Valgus Stress: Stable

What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) tear
B. Meniscal tear
C. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture
D. Patellar tendon rupture

Answer: C. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture.

Explanation: The clinical triad of a "pop" sound, immediate swelling (hemarthrosis), and inability to bear weight is highly suggestive of an ACL rupture. The Lachman test is the most sensitive physical exam maneuver for detecting an ACL tear, while the Anterior Drawer test provides further confirmation of anterior tibial translation. A meniscal tear (Choice B) would more likely present with joint line tenderness and a positive McMurray test. MCL and LCL injuries (Choice A) are identified via valgus and varus stress testing, respectively.

Don't Leave Your Career to Chance

The June 30th benefit is simple: it is the opportunity to use your current resources to protect your future career. By choosing to enroll in the PANRE Review Course now, you are ensuring that your board preparation is handled by experts, your 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit are secured, and your educational budget is utilized to its full potential.

Our content is written by physician assistants for physician assistants, ensuring that every question and every lecture is tailored to the specific needs of our profession. Whether you are in Family Medicine, Emergency Medicine, or a sub-specialty like Orthopedics or Dermatology, our review packages provide the high-yield information you need to pass your boards and maintain your certification with confidence.

Make the move before the June 30th deadline. Explore our CME packages with Amazon and Apple Gift Card add-ons here and start your review today.

Price: Starting at $399.99 (Base Course)
Duration of Access: 30 Months
Deliverables: 100 Category 1 AAPA Credit Hours (PANRE Review Course)

Maintaining your clinical edge in Family Medicine requires a broad knowledge base that spans every organ system. From managing chronic hypertension to identifying the subtle signs of secondary hypothyroidism, the breadth of primary care is vast. At CME Review Courses, we provide the tools to simplify your certification and recertification process while maximizing the utility of your employer-provided CME funds.

Whether you are preparing for the panre review course or looking for high-yield pance prep courses, understanding how to leverage your professional development budget is critical. One of our most popular options is the ability to include gift card add-ons to your purchase. Here are 10 things you need to know about CME gift cards and how they can benefit your clinical practice.

10 Things You Should Know About CME Gift Cards

1. They Are Not Free Gifts

It is essential to understand that the Amazon and Apple gift cards offered through our site are NOT free gifts. They are add-ons that are integrated into the total purchase price of your CME package. This structure allows you to use your CME allowance to acquire both the necessary educational content and the tools required to access that content.

2. Customizable Add-on Amounts

We recognize that different employers provide varying levels of CME funding. To accommodate this, we offer a wide range of gift card values. You can add anywhere from $100 to $1,500 to your purchase. This flexibility ensures that you can maximize your specific budget without leaving unused funds on the table at the end of the fiscal year.

3. Direct Integration with High-Yield Content

Our gift card options are most frequently paired with the PANRE Review Course, which provides 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit. This allows you to complete your entire NCCPA recertification requirement in one comprehensive, high-yield package while securing the funds needed for your educational hardware or software.

4. Amazon vs. Apple: Choose Your Platform

We offer both Amazon and Apple gift cards. If you need a new iPad for clinical documentation or to view our medical illustrations at the bedside, the Apple add-on is ideal. If you require medical textbooks, a new stethoscope, or office supplies for your Family Medicine clinic, the Amazon add-on provides the versatility you need.

5. Efficient Use of CME Funds

Many PAs find themselves in a "use it or lose it" situation with their annual CME allowance. Adding a gift card to your educational purchase is an efficient way to ensure your entire stipend is utilized toward your professional growth. It consolidates your clinical training and your equipment needs into a single transaction.

6. 30-Month Access for Long-Term Review

When you purchase a package like our Family Medicine CME Package or the panre review course, you receive 30 months of access. This extended duration is specifically designed for PAs who want to review content at their own pace over multiple years, rather than cramming just before an exam.

7. Designed by PAs for PAs

The content within our courses: including Emergency Medicine, Family Medicine, and Cardiology: is written by physician assistants. We understand the specific formatting of the NCCPA blueprint and the types of clinical vignettes you will face in practice and on the exam.

8. Value for Physicians and NPs

While our courses are primary tools for PAs, physicians and nurse practitioners also find significant value in our content. For physicians, this counts as Category 2 CME. For Nurse Practitioners, Category 1 AAPA credit is accepted in many states, though you should always verify with your specific state board.

9. Broad Specialty Coverage

Our CME packages cover a massive range of medical specialties:

• Cardiology
• Dermatology
• Pulmonology
• Endocrinology
• Orthopedics
• OB/GYN

This variety ensures that a Family Medicine provider can get a comprehensive review of all systems relevant to primary care.

10. Educational Enrichment

The ultimate goal of the gift card add-on is to enrich your education. Whether you are using an Apple gift card to subscribe to clinical decision-support apps or an Amazon gift card to purchase the latest surgical anatomy text, these add-ons are meant to provide the physical resources that complement our digital course content.

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Family Medicine Clinical Pearls: High-Yield Daily Tips

In a Family Medicine setting, you are the first line of defense for a multitude of pathologies. Use these clinical pearls as a rapid review for your daily practice or your upcoming panre review course.

Cardiology and Hypertension

• First-Line Pharmacotherapy: In the general non-black population (including those with diabetes), initial antihypertensive treatment should include a thiazide-type diuretic, calcium channel blocker (CCB), ACE inhibitor, or ARB.
• Diabetes and CKD: If your patient has chronic kidney disease (CKD) or diabetes with proteinuria, an ACE inhibitor or ARB should be the first-line choice to provide renal protection.
• Heart Failure Markers: An S3 gallop is highly specific for ventricular filling into a compliant, dilated left ventricle (systolic heart failure), while an S4 gallop indicates atrial contraction into a non-compliant ventricle (diastolic dysfunction, often due to long-standing HTN).

Pulmonology in Primary Care

• Asthma Management: Remember that a SABA (Short-Acting Beta Agonist) alone is no longer the preferred rescue-only management for intermittent asthma in many guidelines; consider the role of low-dose ICS-formoterol as needed.
• COPD Exacerbations: The triad of increased dyspnea, increased sputum volume, and increased sputum purulence warrants the initiation of antibiotics, typically targeting H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis, and S. pneumoniae.

Endocrine and Preventive Screening

• Diabetes Screening: According to the USPSTF, you should screen for prediabetes and type 2 diabetes in adults aged 35 to 70 years who are overweight or obese.
• Hypothyroidism: A high TSH with a low free T4 confirms primary hypothyroidism. If both are low, you must consider secondary (central) causes.

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Clinical Vignettes and Practice Questions

Question 1

Your patient is a 58-year-old male with a history of hypertension and Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. He presents for a routine follow-up. His blood pressure today is 152/94 mmHg, which is consistent with his readings over the last three months despite lifestyle modifications. His latest labs show a serum creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL and a urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio of 45 mg/g (normal <30 mg/g). Which of the following is the most appropriate initial antihypertensive medication for this patient?

A. Amlodipine
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Lisinopril
D. Metoprolol

Correct Answer: C. Lisinopril
In a patient with diabetes and evidence of albuminuria (microalbuminuria), an ACE inhibitor like Lisinopril (or an ARB) is the preferred initial agent because it provides renoprotective effects and slows the progression of diabetic nephropathy. While amlodipine and hydrochlorothiazide are first-line for uncomplicated hypertension, they do not offer the same renal benefits in the setting of proteinuria. Metoprolol is generally not a first-line agent for hypertension unless there is a specific cardiac indication like HFrEF or post-MI.

Question 2

Your patient is a 64-year-old female smoker with a 40-pack-year history who presents with worsening shortness of breath and a chronic productive cough. On physical exam, she has a barrel chest and decreased breath sounds bilaterally. Pulmonary function testing (PFT) reveals a FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.62. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Asthma
B. COPD
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Pulmonary Fibrosis

Correct Answer: B. COPD
The patient’s significant smoking history, physical exam findings (barrel chest), and PFT results are classic for COPD. A post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of <0.70 confirms the presence of persistent airflow limitation, which is the hallmark of COPD. Asthma typically shows a reversible airflow obstruction, and pulmonary fibrosis is a restrictive lung disease characterized by a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio and reduced lung volumes.

Question 3

Your patient is a 32-year-old female presenting with 3 weeks of fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. On physical exam, you note a delayed relaxation phase of her deep tendon reflexes. Her TSH is 12.4 mIU/L (normal: 0.4–4.0 mIU/L) and her free T4 is 0.6 ng/dL (normal: 0.8–1.8 ng/dL). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Repeat TSH in 6 months
B. Start Levothyroxine
C. Perform a thyroid ultrasound
D. Start Methimazole

Correct Answer: B. Start Levothyroxine
This patient has symptomatic primary hypothyroidism, confirmed by an elevated TSH and a low free T4. The most appropriate management is to initiate thyroid hormone replacement therapy with Levothyroxine. Repeating the TSH in 6 months would delay necessary treatment for overt hypothyroidism. A thyroid ultrasound is not routinely indicated for the diagnosis of hypothyroidism unless a nodule is palpated on exam. Methimazole is used to treat hyperthyroidism.

Conclusion

Maximizing your education and your CME budget requires a strategic approach. By choosing a panre review course that offers 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit, you ensure that your clinical knowledge remains current with the NCCPA blueprint. Integrating an Amazon or Apple gift card add-on allows you to effectively utilize your employer's funds to secure the technology and resources you need for your Family Medicine practice.

Explore our full range of packages and start your journey toward exam success and clinical excellence today.

View All CME with Gift Card Packages Here

The mid-year deadline of June 30th creates a high-pressure environment for Physician Assistants. Whether you are facing a state licensing renewal or an employer-mandated deadline to exhaust your annual CME stipend, the window for action is closing. Obtaining high-yield Category 1 AAPA credit does not have to be a multi-week ordeal.

If you are currently short on hours, you need an efficient, 48-hour execution plan to secure your credits and maximize your professional budget before the clock strikes midnight on June 30th.

Course Logistics and Deliverables:

• PANRE Review Course: $399.99 for 100 Hours of Category 1 AAPA Credit.
• Pharmacology CME Course: $399.99 for 12 Hours of Category 1 AAPA Credit.
• Access Duration: 30 Months for all packages.
• Gift Card Add-ons: $100 to $1500 (Amazon or Apple) available for all courses.
• Format: Digital, on-demand modules with comprehensive practice questions.

The 48-Hour Execution Strategy

The primary challenge in late June is not just finding a course, but finding one that delivers a substantial volume of credit instantly. Many PAs find themselves 20, 50, or even 100 hours short due to a busy clinical schedule.

Day 1: Secure the Heavy Hitters

The most efficient path to credit volume is the PANRE Review Course. This course provides 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit. While it is titled for the PANRE, it is an exhaustive review of Family Medicine, Internal Medicine, and common surgical subspecialties.

By starting Day 1 with this course, you address the bulk of any credit deficiency. The content is broken down into manageable clinical modules, allowing you to focus on high-yield topics such as Cardiology, Pulmonology, and Gastroenterology.

Day 2: Pharmacology and Specialized Credits

If your specific requirement involves pharmacology or if you have extra stipend funds that will vanish by July 1st, the Pharmacology CME Review Package is your next step. This provides 12 hours of Category 1 AAPA pharmacology credit. Many state boards and employer contracts specifically require a set number of these hours.

Maximizing the Mid-Year Budget with Gift Cards

A common frustration among PAs is the "use it or lose it" nature of the CME stipend. If you have $2,000 remaining in your budget on June 28th, buying a standard $400 course leaves $1,600 on the table.

Our CME packages allow you to add an Amazon or Apple Gift Card from $100 up to $1500 to your purchase. This integrates the gift card into your educational package price. This allows you to purchase necessary medical equipment, textbooks, or technology to further your clinical education throughout the rest of the year, even after the June 30th deadline has passed.

Professional Board Review Resources

For those specifically preparing for the NCCPA Blueprint, high-quality review books are essential companions to the digital modules. Using the rest of your budget on physical resources ensures you have a tangible library for the next certification cycle.

Educational Assessment and Clinical Vignettes

To maintain certification and provide high-standard care, PAs must stay sharp on clinical diagnostics and management protocols. Below are three practice scenarios representative of the content found within our 100-hour and pharmacology courses.

Clinical Scenario 1: Cardiovascular Management

Your patient is a 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and Type 2 Diabetes who presents for a routine follow-up. He reports occasional lightheadedness when standing quickly. His current medications include Lisinopril 20mg and Metformin 1000mg BID. Vitals: BP 142/88 (sitting), 118/72 (standing); HR 74; SaO2 98% on room air. Lab work shows a serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L and a Cr of 1.4 mg/dL (baseline 1.1).

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Increase Lisinopril to 40mg
B) Discontinue Lisinopril and start Amlodipine
C) Add Hydrochlorothiazide 25mg
D) Order a 24-hour Holter monitor

Correct Answer: B) Discontinue Lisinopril and start Amlodipine
The patient is experiencing symptomatic orthostatic hypotension and mild hyperkalemia (Potassium 5.2). ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril can contribute to both hyperkalemia and orthostasis, especially with declining renal function (Cr increase from 1.1 to 1.4). Switching to a Calcium Channel Blocker like Amlodipine avoids the risk of hyperkalemia while still managing the primary hypertension. Increasing the dose (A) would worsen the orthostasis. Adding a diuretic (C) would increase the risk of volume depletion and further orthostasis. A Holter monitor (D) is not indicated as the lightheadedness is clearly orthostatic in nature.

Clinical Scenario 2: Respiratory Emergency

Your patient is a 24-year-old female with a history of asthma presenting to the Urgent Care with acute shortness of breath and wheezing. She has been using her Albuterol inhaler every 2 hours for the last 12 hours without significant relief. Vitals: HR 115; RR 28; SaO2 91% on room air. On exam, she has diffuse expiratory wheezing and is using accessory muscles.

What is the most appropriate immediate intervention?

A) Administer nebulized Albuterol/Ipratropium and oral Prednisone
B) Order a Stat Chest X-ray
C) Start I.V. Magnesium Sulfate
D) Administer subcutaneous Epinephrine

Correct Answer: A) Administer nebulized Albuterol/Ipratropium and oral Prednisone
The patient is having an acute asthma exacerbation with signs of respiratory distress (tachypnea, tachycardia, accessory muscle use, and hypoxia). The standard of care is immediate bronchodilation with a SABA/SAMA combination and systemic corticosteroids to reduce airway inflammation. A chest X-ray (B) is only indicated if a complication like pneumothorax or pneumonia is suspected, but should not delay treatment. Magnesium (C) is reserved for severe cases unresponsive to initial therapy. Epinephrine (D) is generally reserved for anaphylaxis or severe status asthmaticus when nebulized therapy is not feasible.

Clinical Scenario 3: Dermatology Assessment

Your patient is a 45-year-old male presenting with a pruritic, erythematous rash on his right lower leg. He reports the area has been getting larger over the last 3 days. He has no fever or chills. On exam, the area is well-demarcated, shiny, and tender to palpation. There is no fluctuance or purulence. Vitals are stable.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Cellulitis
B) Erysipelas
C) Necrotizing Fasciitis
D) Contact Dermatitis

Correct Answer: B) Erysipelas
The key descriptor here is "well-demarcated" and "shiny." Erysipelas is a superficial form of cellulitis typically caused by Streptococcus pyogenes that involves the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics, leading to a sharply defined border. Standard cellulitis (A) usually has deeper involvement and more diffuse, poorly defined borders. Necrotizing Fasciitis (C) would present with systemic toxicity, rapid progression, and "pain out of proportion to exam." Contact dermatitis (D) would typically present with vesicles or scaling and a history of exposure to an irritant, rather than the tender, inflammatory plaque seen here.

Final Call for June 30th

Efficiency is the priority when navigating the mid-year deadline. By choosing a comprehensive 100-hour PANRE Review Course, you can fulfill your entire CME obligation in one single purchase. Adding a gift card allows you to maximize your employer's contribution and secure educational resources for the future.

Ensure your credits are logged and your stipend is utilized. Visit CME Review Courses today to select your package and beat the June 30th deadline.

Price: $599.00 – $2,100.00
Duration: 12 months of 24/7 access
Deliverables: 100 AAPA Category 1 CME Credits (PANRE Review Course) and/or Pharmacology Category 1 Credits (Pharmacology Course)
Content: 1,000+ board-style practice questions, downloadable PDFs, and comprehensive review modules.

Navigating the biennial CME cycle requires a strategic approach to ensure you meet both national certification standards and state-specific prescribing requirements. For physician assistants, securing AAPA Category 1 Pharmacology credit is often the most time-consuming aspect of licensure renewal. At CME Review Courses, we have streamlined this process by offering targeted medical content designed by PAs, for PAs, while providing a way to maximize your educational budget through cme gift cards.

The following five steps outline how to efficiently secure your credits while leveraging our panre review course and pharmacology packages.

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Step 1: Identify Your Specific Credit Requirements

Before purchasing any course, you must distinguish between general Category 1 credits and those designated for pharmacology. The NCCPA requires 100 CME credits every two years, at least 50 of which must be Category 1. However, many state boards have specific mandates for pharmacology hours to maintain prescriptive authority.

Our Pharmacology Course is specifically designated for Category 1 AAPA Credit. If your primary goal is to satisfy a 100-hour requirement for your PANRE cycle, our PANRE Review Course provides exactly 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit. Identifying these needs early prevents the last-minute scramble before the December 31st deadline.

Step 2: Select the Pharmacology Review Course

Pharmacology is the backbone of clinical practice, yet it remains one of the most challenging areas of the NCCPA Blueprint. Our pharmacology content focuses on high-yield topics across multiple specialties including Cardiology, Emergency Medicine, and Internal Medicine.

This course is not just a review; it is a clinical tool. By completing the pharmacology modules, you earn the specific credits required by many state medical boards. It is important to note that while this course provides essential pharmacology credit, the massive 100-hour block of credit is reserved for our comprehensive PANRE packages.

Step 3: Bundle with the PANRE Review Course for 100 Credits

If you are approaching your recertification year, the panre review course is the most efficient way to secure your 100 Category 1 AAPA credits in a single location. This course covers the entirety of the NCCPA Blueprint, ensuring you are prepared for the PANRE or PANRE-LA.

The value of this bundle lies in its efficiency. Instead of piecing together 1-hour or 2-hour modules from various sources, you gain access to a singular, authoritative source of information that satisfies your entire Category 1 requirement for the cycle.

Step 4: Maximize Your Budget with CME Gift Card Add-ons

We offer an efficient way to use your employer-provided CME money. When purchasing our courses, you have the option to include an Amazon or Apple Gift Card add-on. These add-ons range from $100 to $1500.

It is critical to understand that these are add-ons to your purchase and are NOT free gifts. By including these in your CME package, you can further enrich your education by purchasing medical equipment, textbooks, or technology necessary for your practice. This makes our pance prep courses and PANRE reviews some of the most flexible options on the market.

Step 5: Complete the Assessment and Claim Your Credit

Once you have accessed the content, you will move through our board-style practice questions. Our platform is built for the busy clinician. You can access the modules on any device, allowing you to study during clinical downtime or between patients. After completing the evaluations, you can immediately download your certificates to log with the NCCPA or your state board.

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Clinical Pharmacology: Internal Medicine & Cardiology Focus

To illustrate the practical application of the pharmacology and PANRE review content, consider the following clinical scenario involving hypertension and heart failure management.

Clinical Vignette

Your patient is a 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and chronic stable angina who presents to your clinic for a routine follow-up. He reports recent-onset fatigue and mild pedal edema. His current medications include Lisinopril 20mg daily and Amlodipine 5mg daily. On physical exam, his BP is 148/92 mmHg, HR is 82 bpm, and he has 1+ pitting edema bilaterally at the ankles. You suspect the early stages of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF).

Which of the following medication adjustments is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient’s cardiovascular health according to current guidelines?

A) Increase Lisinopril to 40mg daily
B) Discontinue Amlodipine and initiate Metoprolol Succinate
C) Add Furosemide 20mg daily
D) Discontinue Lisinopril and initiate Sacubitril/Valsartan

Explanation

The correct answer is D) Discontinue Lisinopril and initiate Sacubitril/Valsartan.

In patients with symptomatic HFrEF, the transition from an ACE inhibitor (like Lisinopril) to an Angiotensin Receptor-Neprilysin Inhibitor (ARNI) such as Sacubitril/Valsartan is recommended to reduce morbidity and mortality. This change is prioritized over simply increasing the ACE inhibitor dose or adding a loop diuretic for symptom management alone. When switching from an ACE inhibitor to an ARNI, a 36-hour washout period is required to minimize the risk of angioedema.

• Choice A is incorrect because while increasing the ACE dose may lower blood pressure, it does not provide the superior mortality benefits seen with ARNI therapy in the setting of HFrEF.
• Choice B is incorrect as Metoprolol Succinate (a beta-blocker) is a standard of care for HFrEF, but the transition to ARNI therapy is a more primary recommendation for mortality benefit in patients already on an ACE inhibitor.
• Choice C addresses the pedal edema but does not address the underlying neurohormonal progression of heart failure as effectively as an ARNI.

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Why Choose CME Review Courses?

Our content is written by physician assistants who understand the rigors of clinical practice. We provide content across Emergency Medicine, Family Medicine, Internal Medicine, Orthopedics, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Neurology, Cardiology, and OB/GYN.

While our primary target is the physician assistant, Nurse Practitioners have successfully used our AAPA Category 1 credits for their requirements, depending on their specific state board rules. Physicians also find significant value in our packages, claiming them as Category 2 CME.

By choosing our panre review course, you are investing in a high-quality educational experience that respects your time and your budget. Whether you need the full 100 hours of Category 1 credit or specific pharmacology hours, our packages: including the cme gift cards add-on options: provide the most comprehensive solution available today.

Ready to simplify your CME cycle? Visit CME Review Courses to explore our gift card add-on packages and start earning your credits today.

Managing a Continuing Medical Education (CME) budget requires the same clinical precision used in patient care. For Physician Assistants (PAs), the stakes involve both financial efficiency and national certification compliance. The following logistics represent the standard for high-yield, efficient CME acquisition:

• PANRE Review Course: $399.99
• Pharmacology Review Course: $399.99
• Duration of Access: 30 Months
• Deliverables: 100 Hours of Category 1 AAPA Credit (PANRE Review), 12 Hours of Category 1 AAPA Self-Assessment Pharmacology Credit

Education is a recurring professional obligation. Failing to treat your CME stipend as a strategic asset leads to unnecessary stress and financial waste. Here are the seven most common mistakes clinicians make when managing their CME budget and how to rectify them using high-value resources.

1. Waiting Until the Final Quarter to Log Credits

The NCCPA requires 100 CME credits every two-year cycle. A frequent logistical failure is waiting until November or December of the expiration year to earn and log these hours. Procrastination often results in "panic-buying" expensive, low-quality credits simply to meet a deadline.

The Fix: Secure long-term access to a comprehensive review. The PANRE Review Course provides 30 months of access, allowing you to earn your 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit at a controlled pace. By purchasing early in your cycle, you amortize the cost of education over nearly three years of clinical practice.

2. Misunderstanding Tax Deductibility for W-2 Employees

Many clinicians assume all CME-related expenses are automatically tax-deductible. Following the 2018 federal tax changes, most unreimbursed employee business expenses are no longer deductible for W-2 employees on a federal level. If you are paying out of pocket and expect a tax break, you may be miscalculating your net costs.

The Fix: If you are a W-2 employee, prioritize using your employer’s CME allowance first. If you are a 1099 contractor or practice owner, these expenses remain "ordinary and necessary" business deductions. Always consult a tax professional, but recognize that maximizing the value per credit hour is the only guaranteed way to protect your bottom line.

3. Ignoring the Power of Self-Assessment Multipliers

Clinicians often overlook the specific "bonus" credits offered by the NCCPA for Self-Assessment (SA) activities. For PAs, the NCCPA applies a 50% extra credit weighting to AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME.

The Fix: Utilize the Pharmacology Review Course, which offers 12 hours of Category 1 AAPA Self-Assessment credit. Because of the multiplier, these 12 hours effectively contribute 18 credits toward your 100-hour requirement. This is the most efficient way to maximize your budget and your time.

4. Purchasing "Credit Mills" with Zero Clinical Utility

A "credit mill" is a program designed solely for the sake of checking a box. These programs often lack clinical depth and do not prepare you for the NCCPA Blueprint. Spending $400 on credits that don’t help you in the clinic or during a recertification exam is a poor return on investment.

The Fix: Invest in content written by PAs for PAs. Our courses cover Emergency Medicine, Family Medicine, Internal Medicine, Orthopedics, Dermatology, and more. This ensures that while you are earning your 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit, you are also improving your clinical decision-making.

5. Misjudging Credit Requirements for Non-PA Clinicians

While our courses are tailored to the NCCPA Blueprint, Nurse Practitioners and Physicians often purchase our packages for the clinical depth. A common mistake is assuming that AAPA Category 1 credits count the same for all boards.

The Fix: Nurse Practitioners can often claim AAPA Category 1 credit, but state-level requirements vary. For Physicians, our courses count as Category 2 CME. If you are a Physician or NP, confirm your specific state board’s stance on AAPA credit before purchase to ensure your budget is used correctly.

6. Underestimating "Hidden" CME Costs

A $1,500 conference registration often hides an additional $2,000 in travel, lodging, and lost productivity. If your CME budget is $2,500, a single live event can bankrupt your professional development fund for the year.

The Fix: Transition to an "Enduring Materials" model. For $399.99, you receive 30 months of access to all necessary materials for the PANRE Review Course. This eliminates the need for travel while providing a larger block of credits (100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit) than most five-day conferences.

7. Losing Documentation Across Cycles

The NCCPA instructs PAs to maintain documentation for the current and previous cycles in case of an audit. Many clinicians lose access to their certificates because they used a temporary work email or a platform that expired.

The Fix: Use a platform with long-term stability. With 30 months of access provided by CME Review Courses, you have a centralized location to access your materials and certificates long after the initial purchase.

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Clinical Practice Assessment

Your clinical competency is just as important as your financial efficiency. Evaluate the following scenarios to test your knowledge.

Scenario 1: Cardiology

Your patient is a 64-year-old male presenting with acute onset of palpitations and shortness of breath. Vital signs: BP 110/70, HR 145 (irregular), SaO2 94% on RA. The EKG confirms Atrial Fibrillation with Rapid Ventricular Response (RVR). He has a history of HTN and DM. What is the most appropriate initial management for rate control in the absence of heart failure or accessory pathways?

A) Adenosine
B) Diltiazem
C) Amiodarone
D) Synchronized Cardioversion

Explanation: Diltiazem is the correct choice. Calcium channel blockers (or beta-blockers) are first-line agents for rate control in stable AFib with RVR. Adenosine is used for SVT, not AFib. Amiodarone is typically reserved for rhythm control or patients with refractory RVR/heart failure. Synchronized cardioversion is indicated if the patient is hemodynamically unstable, which is not the case here (BP 110/70).

Scenario 2: Emergency Medicine

Your patient is a 28-year-old female who was brought to the ED following a motor vehicle collision (MVC). She is conscious but complaining of severe pelvic pain. Vital signs: BP 90/60, HR 120, SaO2 96%. Physical exam reveals pelvic instability. What is the most critical immediate step in management?

A) Application of a pelvic binder
B) Stat CT of the abdomen and pelvis
C) Insertion of a Foley catheter
D) Orthopedic consultation

Explanation: Application of a pelvic binder is the correct answer. In the setting of pelvic instability and hypotension, hemorrhage control via mechanical stabilization of the pelvic ring is the priority. A CT scan should only be performed once the patient is stabilized. Foley catheters are contraindicated if there is a risk of urethral injury (often associated with pelvic fractures). Consultations follow initial resuscitation and stabilization.

Scenario 3: Internal Medicine

Your patient is a 55-year-old male with a history of cirrhosis who presents with increasing abdominal girth and a low-grade fever. Paracentesis is performed. The ascitic fluid analysis shows a polymorphonuclear (PMN) cell count of 300 cells/mm³. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

A) Furosemide
B) Large volume paracentesis
C) Cefotaxime
D) Prednisone

Explanation: Cefotaxime is the correct answer. A PMN count >250 cells/mm³ in ascitic fluid is diagnostic of Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP), which requires immediate intravenous antibiotics, typically a third-generation cephalosporin like cefotaxime. Furosemide treats the ascites but not the infection. Prednisone has no role in the management of SBP.

Conclusion

Maximizing your CME budget is not about finding the cheapest possible credits; it is about finding the highest density of clinical value per dollar spent. By avoiding the pitfalls of procrastination, "credit mills," and hidden travel costs, you can secure your professional standing and your financial health simultaneously.

The PANRE Review Course and Pharmacology Review Course offer an efficient, PA-led solution for meeting your 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit requirements with 30 months of clinical support.

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The 2026 fiscal mid-year deadline is approaching rapidly. For many physician assistants and nurse practitioners, June 30th marks the expiration of annual CME stipends. Funds not utilized by midnight on this date are often forfeited, representing a lost opportunity for professional development and educational enrichment.

At CME Review Courses, we provide a streamlined, high-yield solution to ensure your employer-provided funds are maximized before the clock runs out. Our programs are designed by physician assistants for physician assistants, ensuring clinical relevance and efficiency.

Course Logistics and Deliverables:

• PANRE Review Course: $800 – $2,500 (depending on gift card add-on selection).
• Pharmacology Course: $600 – $2,000 (depending on gift card add-on selection).
• CME Credits: 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit (PANRE Review).
• Access Duration: 12 months of unlimited access from the date of purchase.
• Deliverables: Comprehensive video modules, digital study materials, and a robust question bank.
• Incentives: Amazon or Apple Gift Card add-ons ranging from $100 to $1,500.

Maximizing the June 30th Deadline

The urgency of the June 30th deadline cannot be overstated. Clinical departments typically operate on a "use it or lose it" policy regarding educational stipends. If you have a remaining balance of $500, $1,000, or even $2,500, purchasing a comprehensive review course today ensures those funds are converted into long-term educational value rather than being returned to the hospital's general fund.

Our platform allows for immediate enrollment. Upon purchase, you receive an itemized confirmation suitable for clinical reimbursement systems. This allows you to secure your 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit for the PANRE Review well in advance of your next recertification cycle.

The PANRE Review: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit

The PANRE Review Course is our flagship offering for physician assistants approaching their recertification exam or those looking for a comprehensive clinical refresh. This course is specifically designed to cover the high-yield topics identified by the NCCPA.

Core Content Areas Include:

• Cardiology: Management of ACS, valvular heart disease, and advanced EKG interpretation.
• Pulmonology: Focus on obstructive vs. restrictive lung disease and current GOLD criteria for COPD.
• Orthopedics: Clinical evaluation of common fractures, dislocations, and rheumatological emergencies.
• Dermatology: Identification of malignant versus benign lesions and therapeutic management of common rashes.
• Emergency Medicine: Triage, resuscitation protocols, and acute trauma management.
• Internal Medicine: Comprehensive review of hospitalist medicine, including electrolyte imbalances and infectious disease protocols.

This course provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 CME credit. This is the most efficient way to satisfy a massive portion of your two-year NCCPA requirement in a single purchase. While primarily designed for PAs, Internal Medicine Physicians and Nurse Practitioners have frequently utilized this course for Category 2 credit or state-specific CE requirements.

The Pharmacology Course: Targeted AAPA Credit

For those who have already satisfied their general CME requirements but need targeted pharmacology hours, our Pharmacology Course is the ideal solution. This course focuses on modern pharmacotherapeutics, drug interactions, and the latest FDA-approved medications across various specialties.

Like the PANRE course, this also qualifies for AAPA Category 1 Credit. It is particularly valuable for Nurse Practitioners who require a specific number of pharmacology-specific continuing education hours for license renewal in many states.

The Incentive: Amazon and Apple Gift Card Add-ons

We recognize that the cost of high-quality medical education often leaves a surplus in clinical stipends. To help you further enrich your professional life, we offer the option to bundle your CME purchase with an Amazon or Apple Gift Card.

Purchasers can select add-ons ranging from $100 to $1,500. This allows you to use your CME funds to acquire the hardware (such as an iPad for mobile clinical reference) or the textbooks (via Amazon) needed to support your practice. The total price of the package includes both the educational content and the gift card, making it a comprehensive use of your 2026 allowance.

Clinical Assessment: Practice Questions

To maintain clinical proficiency, every PA must be able to navigate complex patient presentations. Below are several practice scenarios modeled after the NCCPA format.

Scenario 1: Cardiology

Your patient is a 64-year-old male presenting to the emergency department with acute onset of crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left jaw. He is diaphoretic and nauseated. Vital signs show a BP of 105/65 mmHg, HR 98 bpm, and SaO2 94% on room air. An EKG is performed immediately, showing 3mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.

What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A) Obtain a Stat Chest X-ray to rule out aortic dissection
B) Administer 324mg of Aspirin and activate the cardiac catheterization lab
C) Start a Heparin drip and admit to the ICU for observation
D) Perform a bedside D-dimer to evaluate for pulmonary embolism

Answer: B. Administer 324mg of Aspirin and activate the cardiac catheterization lab.
The EKG findings (ST-elevation in II, III, aVF) are diagnostic of an inferior wall Myocardial Infarction (STEMI). Standard of care mandates rapid reperfusion therapy, preferably via Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) within 90 minutes of arrival. Aspirin is the first-line antiplatelet therapy. While a Chest X-ray (Choice A) is often part of the workup, it must not delay transport to the cath lab. Admit and observe (Choice C) is inappropriate for an active STEMI, and D-dimer (Choice D) is irrelevant in the presence of clear EKG evidence of ischemia.

Scenario 2: Orthopedics

Your patient is a 22-year-old female athlete who felt a "pop" in her right knee while pivoting during a soccer match. She experienced immediate swelling and an inability to bear weight. On physical exam, the Lachman test is positive with significant anterior translation of the tibia compared to the femur.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Medial Meniscus Tear
B) Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) Rupture
C) Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL) Sprain
D) Patellar Tendon Rupture

Answer: B. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) Rupture.
The clinical history of a "pop" during a non-contact pivoting injury followed by immediate effusion is classic for an ACL tear. The Lachman test is the most sensitive physical exam maneuver for confirming anterior instability. Meniscus tears (Choice A) typically present with locking or catching and delayed swelling. MCL sprains (Choice C) are usually caused by a valgus stress and present with medial joint line tenderness. Patellar tendon rupture (Choice D) would result in a superiorly displaced patella and an inability to perform a straight leg raise.

Scenario 3: Dermatology

Your patient is a 45-year-old male who presents with a "changing mole" on his upper back. He notes the lesion has become darker and has developed irregular borders over the last six months. On inspection, you observe a 7mm asymmetrical plaque with variegated colors including dark brown, black, and a hint of blue.

What is the most appropriate definitive management for this lesion?

A) Cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen
B) Application of topical Imiquimod for 6 weeks
C) Excisional biopsy with 1-3 mm margins
D) Shave biopsy of the darkest area

Answer: C. Excisional biopsy with 1-3 mm margins.
The description is highly suspicious for Malignant Melanoma (ABCDE criteria: Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variegation, Diameter >6mm, Evolution). The gold standard for diagnosis and initial management is a full-thickness excisional biopsy. Shave biopsies (Choice D) are contraindicated for suspected melanoma as they may transect the lesion and prevent accurate Breslow depth measurement, which is the most important prognostic factor. Cryotherapy (Choice A) and topical treatments (Choice B) are inappropriate for suspected malignancy.

Secure Your Credits Before the Midnight Deadline

The clock is ticking toward June 30th. Don't let your hard-earned CME stipend expire. By choosing CME Review Courses, you secure the high-quality PANRE Review Course or the pharmacology hours you need, while also taking advantage of our CME with Gift Card bundles.

Invest in your clinical knowledge and your career today. With 12 months of access, you can learn at your own pace and be fully prepared for your next exam or patient encounter.

Maintaining clinical competency in pharmacology is a professional necessity that often feels like an uphill battle against an ever-expanding list of new agents and changing guidelines. For the practicing Physician Assistant, the goal is twofold: achieving a deeper mastery of drug interactions and mechanisms while satisfying the specific pharmacology credit requirements mandated by state boards and the NCCPA.

Efficiency is the priority. You do not have the time to sift through dry textbooks or generic modules that lack clinical relevance. Mastering pharmacology requires a transition from rote memorization to systematic, mechanism-based understanding.

Essential Logistics

If you are looking for a streamlined way to satisfy your requirements while genuinely improving your prescribing confidence, the Pharmacology Review Course is designed for immediate impact.

• Price: $399.99
• Duration of Access: 30 months of unlimited access
• Deliverables: 120 pharmacology-specific practice questions
• CME Credit: 12 hours of AAPA Category 1 Pharmacology Credit

Systematizing Pharmacology Mastery

The fastest way to improve your pharmacology knowledge is to stop memorizing individual drugs and start building mental models based on drug classes and mechanisms of action (MOA). When you understand the MOA, the indications, contraindications, and adverse effects become predictable rather than random.

Classification-Based Learning

Instead of viewing Lisinopril and Losartan as two separate entities, categorize them by their role in the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS). By mastering the RAAS pathway, you automatically understand why ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough (bradykinin accumulation) while ARBs typically do not. This systemic approach allows you to group dozens of medications into manageable conceptual buckets.

Clinical Application Over Rote Memorization

Medical knowledge is most effectively retained when it is applied to a clinical scenario. Rather than reading a list of side effects for atypical antipsychotics, visualize a patient presenting with metabolic syndrome and weight gain. Associating the drug with the "clinical face" of the side effect creates a stronger neural pathway for recall during both exams and real-world practice.

Leveraging Spaced Repetition and High-Yield Questions

Active recall is the gold standard for long-term retention. Passively reading notes or watching videos is the least efficient way to learn. To see significant improvement in your pharmacology proficiency, you must test yourself frequently.

The Role of Question Banks

The use of a dedicated question bank forces your brain to retrieve information under pressure. Our Pharmacology Review Course includes 120 practice questions that mirror the complexity of the PANRE and real-world clinical decision-making. By working through these questions, you identify specific gaps in your knowledge: such as the nuances between different generations of cephalosporins or the specific monitoring requirements for direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs).

Maximizing Your CME Efficiency

Many PAs find themselves rushing to complete credits at the end of a cycle. By choosing a targeted pharmacology course, you solve two problems at once. You gain the 12 hours of AAPA Category 1 Pharmacology Credit required for many state license renewals, and you sharpen the clinical skills you use every single day in the clinic or hospital.

For those preparing for their recertification cycle, we also offer a more comprehensive option. The PANRE Review Course provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit and covers the full spectrum of the NCCPA Blueprint, including extensive pharmacology integrated into every organ system.

Clinical Pharmacology Assessment

The following questions are designed to test your clinical application of common pharmacologic principles. Use these to gauge your current mastery of high-yield topics.

Case Scenario 1

Your patient is a 64-year-old male with a history of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) and chronic kidney disease (CKD) Stage 3. He presents for a follow-up. His current medications include Carvedilol, Lisinopril, and Furosemide. His recent labs show a serum potassium of 5.4 mEq/L and a serum creatinine of 2.1 mg/dL (baseline 1.8 mg/dL). You are considering adding an aldosterone antagonist.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step regarding his medication regimen?

A) Initiate Spironolactone 25 mg daily
B) Initiate Eplerenone 25 mg daily
C) Delay initiation of aldosterone antagonist and monitor potassium levels
D) Discontinue Lisinopril and initiate Spironolactone

Explanation: Delay initiation of aldosterone antagonist and monitor potassium levels is the correct choice. Aldosterone antagonists are contraindicated or should be used with extreme caution in patients with significant renal impairment (Cr > 2.5 mg/dL in men or > 2.0 mg/dL in women) or baseline hyperkalemia (> 5.0 mEq/L). Initiating Spironolactone (A) or Eplerenone (B) at this time poses a high risk for life-threatening hyperkalemia. Discontinuing an ACE inhibitor to start an aldosterone antagonist (D) is not standard practice for HFrEF management as ACE inhibitors are foundational therapy.

Case Scenario 2

Your patient is a 28-year-old female who was recently started on Phenytoin for a new-onset seizure disorder. She presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. She mentions that she is also taking an oral contraceptive pill (OCP).

What advice should you provide regarding her medication interaction?

A) Use an alternative or back-up method of contraception
B) Increase the dose of the OCP
C) Phenytoin has no effect on OCP efficacy
D) Switch the OCP to an injectable progestin

Explanation: Use an alternative or back-up method of contraception is the correct choice. Phenytoin is a potent inducer of the cytochrome P450 enzyme system (specifically CYP3A4), which increases the metabolism of estrogen and progestin, leading to decreased efficacy of oral contraceptives. Increasing the dose (B) is generally insufficient to overcome the induction. Stating there is no effect (C) is factually incorrect and clinically dangerous. While some injectables are less affected, a non-hormonal back-up method or a copper IUD is the safest recommendation to prevent unintended pregnancy.

Case Scenario 3

Your patient is a 72-year-old female with a history of atrial fibrillation who is currently taking Warfarin. She was recently treated for a urinary tract infection with Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). She presents today with visible bruising on her arms and legs.

What is the expected effect of Bactrim on this patient's INR?

A) Significant increase in INR
B) Significant decrease in INR
C) No change in INR
D) Unpredictable fluctuation in INR

Explanation: Significant increase in INR is the correct choice. Bactrim is a well-known inhibitor of CYP2C9, the primary enzyme responsible for the metabolism of the more potent S-enantiomer of Warfarin. This inhibition leads to decreased clearance of Warfarin and a subsequent rise in INR, increasing the risk of hemorrhage. It does not decrease (B) or have no effect (C) on the INR.

Conclusion

Mastering pharmacology is about recognizing patterns and understanding the physiological "why" behind the drug's effect. By utilizing a high-yield question-based approach and earning your 12 hours of AAPA Category 1 Pharmacology Credit, you ensure that your practice remains safe, efficient, and compliant with professional standards.

Physician Assistant students preparing for the Physician Assistant National Certifying Examination (PANCE) now have access to the most comprehensive mobile study tool available. The PANCE Prep Review & Exams app, developed by Jeremy Boroff, PA-C, of CME Review Courses, is specifically engineered to align with the current NCCPA content blueprint and provide a high-volume, high-fidelity testing experience.

PANCE Prep Review & Exams: Essential Deliverables

• Total Questions: 4,500 board-style questions.
• Exams: 15 full-length practice examinations.
• Study Library: 18-chapter high-yield review covering all organ systems.
• Pricing: Free (Exam 1 and select chapters); $59.99 (Exam Ready Pass – 90 days access); $99.99 (Permanent All-Access – One-time purchase).
• Platform: iOS (iPhone and iPad).
• Download: App Store Link.

A Flagship Tool for PANCE Readiness

The PANCE Prep Review & Exams app represents a significant expansion in the CME Review Courses digital library. While the PACKRAT app focused on foundational knowledge, this flagship application is designed for the final, intensive push toward certification. With 4,500 questions, it offers three times the volume of previous mobile offerings, ensuring students can rotate through 15 unique, full-length exams without encountering repeat content.

Evidence-Based Rationales and Cited Sources

Accuracy and clinical validity are paramount when preparing for the NCCPA boards. Every question in the app includes a detailed explanation that does not just state the correct answer but justifies it using current medical standards. Citations are pulled directly from major specialty-society guidelines and standard clinical texts, including:

• ACC/AHA (Cardiology)
• ADA (Diabetes)
• IDSA (Infectious Disease)
• ACOG (OB/GYN)
• AAN (Neurology)
• KDIGO (Renal)
• GOLD/GINA (Pulmonology)

Advanced Testing Modes and Performance Analytics

The app features two distinct modes of study to facilitate both learning and simulation. Tutor Mode provides immediate feedback and a cited explanation after every question, which is ideal for early-stage review. Timed Mode simulates the real exam environment with a countdown timer, allowing students to practice pacing and stamina.

Students can monitor their progress via an advanced analytics dashboard. The app tracks accuracy across specific organ systems and task areas (e.g., history taking, diagnostic studies, clinical therapeutics). A 75% "on track to pass" benchmark is provided, alongside a score trend over time, to give students a data-driven assessment of their exam readiness.

Integrated 18-Chapter Study Library

Beyond the question bank, the app houses a complete 18-chapter study library. This resource is weighted by organ system to mirror the NCCPA exam blueprint. It includes:

• High-yield tables for rapid comparison of disease states.
• Pinch-to-zoom EKGs and clinical figures for detailed visualization.
• Full-text search capabilities to quickly locate specific pathologies.

If a student identifies a weakness in a particular organ system through the analytics dashboard, they can jump directly to the corresponding chapter in the review library for targeted remediation.

Clinical Practice Scenarios

To demonstrate the level of clinical depth provided in the app, review the following practice vignettes.

Scenario 1: Cardiology

Your patient is a 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and tobacco use who presents to the emergency department with a 2-hour history of substernal chest pressure. His HR is 92 bpm, BP is 145/88 mmHg, and SaO2 is 96% on room air. The EKG reveals ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Administration of intravenous beta-blockers
B) Immediate referral for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
C) Emergent administration of thrombolytics
D) Emergent surgical consultation for CABG

Explanation: The correct answer is B) Immediate referral for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The patient is presenting with an acute inferior ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). According to ACC/AHA guidelines, primary PCI is the preferred reperfusion strategy if it can be performed within 90 minutes of first medical contact at a PCI-capable hospital. Thrombolytics are reserved for cases where PCI is not available within 120 minutes. Beta-blockers are generally avoided in the acute phase of a STEMI if there are signs of heart failure or low output.

Scenario 2: Pulmonology

Your patient is a 24-year-old female complaining of a persistent cough and wheezing that worsens at night. She reports using her albuterol inhaler four times per week. She has no history of intubation or systemic corticosteroid use. Her FEV1 is 85% of predicted.

According to GINA guidelines, what is the preferred maintenance therapy?
A) Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) taken whenever SABA is used
B) Medium-dose ICS monotherapy
C) Long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) monotherapy
D) Daily oral prednisone

Explanation: The correct answer is A) Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) taken whenever SABA is used (or daily low-dose ICS). For patients with mild persistent asthma symptoms occurring more than twice a week but not daily, GINA guidelines now emphasize the early introduction of ICS to reduce the risk of exacerbations. SABA monotherapy is no longer recommended. LABA monotherapy is contraindicated in asthma due to increased risk of asthma-related death.

Career-Long Education and CME

While the PANCE Prep app is designed for initial certification, CME Review Courses provides long-term support for PAs transitioning into practice and preparing for the PANRE.

For PAs nearing their recertification cycle, we offer the PANRE Review Course, which provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME credit.

PANRE Review & CME Logistics:

• Credit: 100 AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME credits.
• Content: 17 hours of video lecture and 1,672 practice questions.
• Access: 30 months.
• Price: $399.99.
• Add-on Options: Amazon or Apple Gift Cards ($100–$1,500).

Our CME with Gift Card packages allow clinicians to maximize their employer-provided CME funds. By adding a gift card to a CME purchase, you can acquire necessary educational credits while also securing funds for additional medical equipment, books, or electronics to further enrich your clinical practice.

The PANCE Prep Review & Exams app is the essential starting point for your career. Download it today on the App Store to begin your 4,500-question journey toward becoming a board-certified Physician Assistant.

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