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Choosing a board review course is one of the most critical professional decisions a Physician Assistant (PA) makes every few years. Whether you are preparing for the traditional PANRE or participating in the PANRE-LA, the sheer volume of medical knowledge required to satisfy the NCCPA Blueprint can be overwhelming. Not all courses are created equal, and many fail to respect the limited time and specific needs of a practicing clinician.

At CME Review Courses, we understand that your time is valuable and your CME budget should work for you. Our content is written by PAs for PAs, ensuring that the clinical complexity and high-yield focus match the reality of the profession.

Before you invest your time and money, here are 10 things you should know about selecting the right board review course.

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1. NCCPA Blueprint Alignment is Mandatory

The first and most important criterion for any board review course is its alignment with the NCCPA Blueprint. The NCCPA periodically updates the exam content, shifting percentages across organ systems. A course that relies on outdated materials from three years ago will leave you over-prepared for rare conditions and under-prepared for the core content categories like Cardiology (13%), Pulmonary (10%), and GI (9%). Ensure your course covers all 15 official content categories in the correct proportions.

2. Credit Types Matter: AAPA Category 1

Not all CME credits are created equal for the PA-C. While many courses offer AMA PRA Category 1 Credit™, PAs should prioritize AAPA Category 1 Credit. This is the gold standard for our profession. Our PANRE Review Course provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit, which is specifically designed to fulfill your major credit requirements in one efficient package. If you are a Nurse Practitioner, keep in mind that the acceptance of AAPA credits varies from state to state, so always verify with your state board.

3. Maximize Your CME Budget with Gift Card Add-ons

Most employers provide a dedicated CME allowance, but many PAs struggle to spend the entire amount or find it difficult to justify high costs for materials that expire. An efficient way to use your CME money is to select a course that offers Amazon or Apple Gift Card add-ons. This allows you to add a $100 to $1,500 gift card to your purchase, which can be used to further enrich your education by purchasing medical equipment, reference books, or technology.

4. Content Written by PAs for PAs

There is a distinct difference between board review content written by academic physicians and content written by practicing PAs. PAs understand the nuances of the "Physician Assistant" perspective, focusing on the diagnostic and management steps most likely to appear on the exam. Our courses are developed by Jeremy Boroff, PA-C, ensuring the content is peer-relevant and practical.

5. Demand Flexible Formats

Avoid courses that force you into a rigid subscription model or require multiple logins that expire after 90 days. As a working professional, you need a course that you can own. Our review exams are available in formats that allow you to own the content permanently, with no expiration and no recurring fees. This is particularly useful for the PANRE-LA, where you may need to reference specific organ system reviews over a three-year period.

6. Retrieval Practice Over Passive Reading

Passive reading of textbooks is the least effective way to retain medical information. The most effective method is retrieval practice. When choosing a course, look for a "forced recall" design. For example, our practice exams reveal the correct answer only after the choices, forcing you to commit to an answer before checking. This simulates the high-stakes environment of the actual testing center.

7. Organ System Specificity

A generic review is often not enough. If you work in a specialty like Orthopedics or Dermatology, you may feel rusty in Cardiology or OB/GYN. Your review course should allow you to dive deep into specific domains. We offer comprehensive content across:

• Emergency Medicine
• Family Medicine
• Internal Medicine/Hospitalist
• Orthopedics
• Dermatology
• Psychiatry
• Neurology
• Cardiology
• OB/GYN

8. Clinical Vignette Complexity

The PANRE has moved away from "first-order" questions (simple recall) and toward complex clinical vignettes. A high-quality course will provide vignettes that include patient demographics, vitals, and physical exam findings, requiring you to make a multi-step diagnostic or management decision.

9. Pharmacology Credit Requirements

Many states and hospital systems now require specific pharmacology CME hours. It is highly efficient to choose a provider that offers both a general PANRE review and a dedicated Pharmacology Course. Our Pharmacology Course also carries AAPA Category 1 Credit, making it easy to satisfy those specific requirements while preparing for boards.

10. Cost-Effectiveness and Deliverables

Before purchasing, look for clear, bolded logistics. You should know exactly what you are getting, for how much, and how long you will have access to it.

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Course Spotlight: 100-Hour PANRE Review Course

• Price: $495 (Base course, plus gift card add-on options)
• Deliverable: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit
• Access: No subscription, no expiration, no login required for the book/exam series.
• Content: Aligned to the NCCPA Blueprint, covering all 15 organ systems.

View the PANRE Review Course Options Here

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Clinical Assessment: Case Study

Your patient is a 64-year-old male with a history of hypertension and tobacco use who presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe, tearing chest pain that radiates to his back. His blood pressure in the right arm is 190/110 mmHg, and in the left arm, it is 160/95 mmHg. His heart rate is 105 bpm. A chest X-ray reveals a widened mediastinum.

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacological management for this patient?

A. Intravenous Nitroprusside
B. Intravenous Esmolol
C. Intravenous Hydralazine
D. Oral Amlodipine
E. Intravenous Heparin

Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Intravenous Esmolol.

The patient’s presentation is classic for an acute aortic dissection (tearing pain, blood pressure discrepancy, widened mediastinum). The primary goal in the management of aortic dissection is "anti-impulse therapy" to reduce the shear stress on the aortic wall. This requires lowering both the heart rate and the blood pressure.

Esmolol (or another IV beta-blocker like Labetalol) is the first-line treatment because it reduces the heart rate (target < 60 bpm) and the contractility of the heart (dP/dt). Only after the heart rate is controlled should vasodilators like Nitroprusside (A) be added, as vasodilators can cause reflex tachycardia, which increases the shear stress on the dissection and may propagate the tear. Hydralazine (C) is contraindicated for the same reason: it can cause reflex tachycardia. Amlodipine (D) is an oral medication and is inappropriate for an acute hypertensive emergency. Heparin (E) is contraindicated in suspected or confirmed aortic dissection as it can worsen the hemorrhage.

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Why Choose CME Review Courses?

Preparation for the PANRE should not be a months-long marathon through 2,000 irrelevant questions. It should be a focused, high-yield review of the topics the NCCPA actually tests. By choosing a course written by PAs, you ensure that you are studying the right material in the most efficient way possible.

Whether you are looking for the full 100-hour PANRE Review Course or looking to bolster your knowledge in a specific area like Internal Medicine or Emergency Medicine, we provide the tools you need to pass your exams and improve your clinical practice.

Efficient CME for Busy Professionals

We also cater to Internal Medicine Physicians who find value in our clinical content. While our courses count as Category 1 AAPA Credit for PAs, physicians can often claim them as Category 2 CME. This makes our packages a versatile option for the entire clinical team.

Stop overpaying for subscriptions you don't use. Invest in a review course that respects your profession and your wallet.

Explore our full catalog of CME with Gift Card options at CMEReviewCourses.com.

Price: $399.99 for core packages
Duration: 30 months of access
Deliverables: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 CME (PANRE Review), Practice Exams, Pharmacology Credit

Selecting a Continuing Medical Education (CME) package is a strategic decision for any practicing Physician Assistant (PA), Nurse Practitioner (NP), or physician. While the primary goal is always clinical competence and meeting licensure requirements, the method of delivery and the "add-ons" provided can significantly impact your professional development. CME packages that offer Amazon or Apple gift card add-ons have become a preferred choice for clinicians who want to maximize their annual employer-provided CME allowance.

At CME Review Courses, we provide a streamlined way to use your CME funds efficiently. By combining high-yield clinical review with flexible gift card options, you are able to invest in both your knowledge base and the physical tools required for your practice.

Understanding the Gift Card Add-on Structure

The logic behind a CME gift card package is simple: it allows you to bundle your educational course with a credit that can be used for further professional enrichment. We offer add-on options ranging from $100 to $1,500.

When you select a package, such as the Internal Medicine Hospitalist CME Package, you pay the base price of the course plus the cost of the gift card you choose. This total is reflected as a single educational expense. This is particularly useful for PAs who have a set annual allowance that must be used within a specific timeframe or it is lost.

Educational Value of Gift Cards

A common misconception is that gift cards are purely for "perks." In reality, an Amazon or Apple gift card is a versatile tool for professional development. Clinicians frequently use these credits to purchase:

• Medical Equipment: High-end stethoscopes (e.g., Littmann Cardiology IV), otoscopes, or dermatoscope attachments for smartphones.
• Reference Materials: Physical copies of the latest surgical manuals or internal medicine texts that are often too expensive for out-of-pocket purchase.
• Technology: iPads or tablets used for mobile EHR access, medical apps (e.g., UpToDate, Epocrates), and viewing our PANRE Review Course videos on the go.
• Office Essentials: Ergonomic equipment for your desk to reduce the physical strain of charting.

Choosing Your Specialty Content

The core of your purchase must be high-quality clinical content. We specialize in review courses that are written by physician assistants for physician assistants. Our packages cover a wide range of specialties, ensuring that your CME is relevant to your daily practice.

Emergency Medicine and Urgent Care

Our Emergency Medicine CME Package and Urgent Care Review focus on the high-acuity, rapid decision-making required in these settings. The content covers everything from pediatric emergencies to advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) concepts and traumatic injuries.

Family and Internal Medicine

For those in primary care, the Family Medicine CME Package provides a comprehensive update on chronic disease management, preventive medicine, and the latest treatment guidelines. The Internal Medicine Hospitalist package is specifically tailored to those managing complex, multi-system illness in the inpatient setting.

Orthopedics and Cardiology

The Orthopedics CME Package is designed to help you master joint exams, fracture management, and common sports medicine injuries. Similarly, our Cardiology review dives deep into EKG interpretation and the management of congestive heart failure (CHF) and coronary artery disease (CAD).

The PANRE Review: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit

If you are approaching your recertification year, the PANRE Review Course is the most efficient choice. This course specifically offers 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 CME credit. This is a significant portion of your required hours, delivered in a format that directly prepares you for the NCCPA Blueprint.

While the course is built for PAs, physicians often purchase this package for the clinical review. It is important to note that for physicians, this counts as Category 2 CME, not Category 1. Nurse Practitioners can often claim these AAPA credits in many states, though you should verify your specific state board requirements.

Clinical Practice and Assessment

High-yield review is only effective if it includes active retrieval practice. Below are clinical vignettes designed to test your knowledge across several organ systems included in our CME packages.

Cardiovascular Assessment

Your patient is a 64-year-old male with a history of hypertension and tobacco use who presents to the emergency department with sudden onset substernal chest pain. The pain is described as "tearing" and radiates to the back between the scapulae.

Vitals:

• HR: 110 bpm
• BP: 185/95 mmHg (Right Arm), 150/80 mmHg (Left Arm)
• SaO2: 96% on RA

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study?
A. Exercise Stress Test
B. CT Angiogram of the Chest and Abdomen
C. Transthoracic Echocardiogram (TTE)
D. Cardiac Enzymes (Troponin I)
E. Chest X-ray

Correct Answer: B. CT Angiogram of the Chest and Abdomen
The correct answer is CT Angiogram. This patient's clinical presentation: sudden "tearing" chest pain radiating to the back with a significant blood pressure differential between arms: is highly suggestive of an aortic dissection. CTA is the gold standard for rapid, definitive diagnosis in a hemodynamically stable patient. Exercise stress tests are contraindicated in acute chest pain. TTE is often insufficient to visualize the descending aorta. While troponins and CXR (looking for a widened mediastinum) are often performed, they are not definitive for this diagnosis.

Orthopedic Assessment

Your patient is a 19-year-old female soccer player who sustained a non-contact injury to her right knee during a game. She reports hearing a "pop" followed by immediate swelling. On examination, she has a positive Lachman test and significant joint effusion.

What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Medial Meniscus Tear
B. Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL) Sprain
C. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) Tear
D. Patellar Tendon Rupture
E. Tibial Plateau Fracture

Correct Answer: C. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) Tear
The correct answer is ACL Tear. A non-contact "pop" with immediate swelling (hemarthrosis) and a positive Lachman test (the most sensitive physical exam maneuver for ACL stability) is classic for an ACL rupture. Meniscal tears often have a more delayed swelling (over 12-24 hours). MCL sprains typically result from a valgus stress and show laxity with valgus testing, not the Lachman.

Dermatology Assessment

Your patient is a 42-year-old male presenting with a pruritic rash on his wrists and ankles. On physical exam, you observe flat-topped, violaceous, polygonal papules. Fine white lines (Wickham striae) are visible on the surface of the lesions.

What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
A. Oral Griseofulvin
B. Topical Clobetasol Propionate
C. Oral Acyclovir
D. Topical Ketoconazole
E. Selenium Sulfide Lotion

Correct Answer: B. Topical Clobetasol Propionate
The correct answer is Topical Clobetasol Propionate. The "6 P's" (Planar, Purple, Polygonal, Pruritic, Papules, and Plaques) are the hallmark of Lichen Planus. First-line therapy for localized Lichen Planus consists of high-potency topical corticosteroids like clobetasol. Oral antifungals (Griseofulvin) or antivirals (Acyclovir) have no role in the treatment of this autoimmune condition.

Final Considerations for CME Packages

When selecting your CME with Amazon Gift Card package, consider the following checklist:

1. Credit Requirement: Do you need specifically Category 1 AAPA credit? If so, prioritize the PANRE Review or the Pharmacology Course.
2. Specialty Focus: Which content area will most improve your daily clinical outcomes?
3. Gift Card Value: Based on your remaining allowance, which add-on amount ($100-$1,500) maximizes your budget without exceeding your cap?

Our courses offer 30 months of access, providing plenty of time to review the material even after you have submitted your credits for the current cycle. This long-term access makes the investment even more valuable as a clinical reference tool.

By choosing a package that aligns with the NCCPA Blueprint and provides the flexibility of a gift card, you are making a smart, professional decision that benefits both your career and your clinical practice. Explore our full catalog of CME Review Courses today to find the package that fits your needs.

Deciding how to maintain your NCCPA certification as a Physician Assistant has changed significantly with the permanent addition of the PANRE-LA. Choosing between the traditional PANRE and the longitudinal assessment (PANRE-LA) isn’t just about how you test: it’s about how you live and work.

Whether you prefer a high-stakes, "one and done" approach or a slow-burn, quarterly commitment, your preparation strategy needs to be efficient. At CME Review Courses, we specialize in high-yield content that respects your time and maximizes your CME budget.

The Logistics: PANRE vs. PANRE-LA

PANRE (Traditional)

• Price: $350 registration fee.
• Format: 240 multiple-choice questions.
• Setting: Proctored at a Pearson VUE testing center.
• Time Limit: 4 hours total (approx. 60 seconds per question).
• Access: High-stakes exam taken once every 10 years.
• Status: Closed book.

PANRE-LA (Longitudinal)

• Price: $350 registration fee (spread over the cycle).
• Format: 25 questions per quarter over 12 quarters (3 years).
• Setting: Remote; take it on your laptop or tablet at home or in the clinic.
• Time Limit: 5 minutes per question.
• Access: Ongoing assessment; only 8 of 12 quarters are required for a passing score.
• Status: Open book.

Which One Fits Your Lifestyle?

The PANRE-LA is designed for the PA-C who wants to integrate learning into their daily routine. Since it is open book, it reduces the "test day anxiety" that many clinicians feel. You have five minutes per question, allowing you to consult resources like UpToDate or your CME Review Courses materials. It also offers 2 Category 1 Self-Assessment CME credits per quarter.

The traditional PANRE is for the PA who wants to get the requirement over with. If you are a strong test-taker and prefer to dedicate one weekend to intensive review rather than three years of quarterly deadlines, the traditional exam is your best bet.

Regardless of the format, you still need to master the NCCPA Blueprint.

Maximize Your CME Dollars with Gift Card Add-Ons

We know that PAs often have a "use it or lose it" CME allowance. We offer an efficient way to utilize those funds. Our PANRE Review Course provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit. This course covers the entire NCCPA Blueprint, including Cardiovascular, Pulmonary, GI, and more, written by PAs, for PAs.

To further enrich your education, we offer CME with Amazon or Apple Gift Card add-ons. You can add a $100 to $1,500 Gift Card to your purchase. This allows you to get the high-yield review you need while also securing funds for medical equipment, textbooks, or technology to support your practice.

Our PANRE/PANRE-LA Review Series is designed for "forced commitment" retrieval practice.

The Power of Forced Commitment

Passive reading is the least effective way to study. Our practice exams use a "forced commitment" model. In our PANRE Review Exam series, the correct answer is revealed only after the choices, forcing you to commit to an answer before checking your work. This mimics the real exam environment and strengthens clinical recall.

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Clinical Assessment: Practice Questions

Testing your knowledge is the only way to identify gaps. Below are two clinical scenarios typical of what you will encounter on either the PANRE or PANRE-LA.

Scenario 1

Patient Demographics: 58-year-old male.
Chief Complaint: Progressive shortness of breath and a chronic productive cough for the last 6 months.
History: 40-pack-year smoking history.
Vital Signs: HR: 92, BP: 138/88, RR: 20, SaO2: 91% on room air.
Physical Exam: Increased AP diameter of the chest, distant heart sounds, and expiratory wheezing bilaterally.

Question: Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

A) Chest X-ray
B) High-resolution CT scan
C) Spirometry
D) Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)
E) Peak expiratory flow rate

Explanation:
The correct answer is C) Spirometry.
Spirometry is the gold standard for diagnosing Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). A post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.70 confirms persistent airflow limitation. A) Chest X-ray may show hyperinflation or a flattened diaphragm but is not diagnostic. B) CT scans are useful for evaluating complications like bronchiectasis or lung cancer but are not first-line for diagnosis. D) ABG is reserved for patients with severe symptoms or suspected respiratory failure. E) Peak flow is more useful for monitoring asthma than diagnosing COPD.

Scenario 2

Patient Demographics: 32-year-old female.
Chief Complaint: Sudden onset of sharp, pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea.
History: Recently returned from a 12-hour flight. Takes oral contraceptive pills.
Vital Signs: HR: 118, BP: 110/70, RR: 26, SaO2: 93% on room air.
Physical Exam: Tachycardia, lungs clear to auscultation, no lower extremity edema noted.

Question: What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A) D-dimer assay
B) Ventilation-Perfusion (V/Q) scan
C) CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA)
D) Venous Duplex Ultrasound
E) Start IV Heparin immediately

Explanation:
The correct answer is C) CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA).
This patient has a high clinical suspicion for Pulmonary Embolism (PE) based on her recent immobilization (long flight), OCP use, tachycardia, and pleuritic pain (Wells Criteria score > 4). In patients with high clinical probability, C) CTPA is the preferred initial imaging study. A) D-dimer is only useful in patients with low to moderate clinical probability to "rule out" PE; it should not be used when suspicion is high. B) V/Q scan is an alternative if CTPA is contraindicated (e.g., renal failure). D) Ultrasound may confirm a DVT but does not diagnose the PE. E) Heparin is indicated, but definitive diagnosis is prioritized in a stable patient.

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Comprehensive Content Coverage

Whether you are treating a patient with a PE in the ER or managing chronic COPD in Family Medicine, our courses cover the high-yield topics you need. Our content includes:

• Cardiovascular
• Pulmonary
• Internal Medicine Hospitalist
• Orthopedics
• Dermatology
• OB/GYN

While our courses are written by physician assistants for physician assistants, many Nurse Practitioners find value in our Pharmacology Course, which also offers AAPA Category 1 Credit. Physicians can also find value in our packages, though the credit typically counts as Category 2 for MD/DOs.

Final Thoughts on Your Choice

If you value flexibility and the ability to use clinical resources, the PANRE-LA is a revolutionary shift in how we maintain certification. However, it requires you to stay on top of quarterly deadlines for three years. If you prefer to study hard, take one exam, and move on with your life, the PANRE remains a solid choice.

Whatever you choose, CME Review Courses is here to ensure you pass. Our PANRE Review Course gives you 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit and the specific, blueprint-aligned practice questions you need to walk into your exam: or log into your quarterly assessment: with total confidence.

Don't just read the blueprint; master it with our Exam 2 and Exam 3 practice series.

The landscape of professional development for Physician Assistants is shifting. Gone are the days when the only way to earn substantial credits was by booking a flight to a crowded conference center. Today, efficiency is the priority. You need high-yield clinical information that directly impacts your practice and your ability to pass the PANRE or PANCE.

Lately, the conversation in breakrooms and professional forums has centered on a specific model: cme gift cards. Specifically, clinicians are looking for ways to maximize their employer-provided CME allowance. By utilizing a panre review course that offers cme with gift card add-ons, you can fulfill your educational requirements while simultaneously acquiring the tools you need for your daily practice.

The Value of the Add-On Model

It is essential to understand how this works at CME Review Courses. When you purchase a course, you have the option to include an Amazon or Apple Gift Card add-on. These range in value from $100 to $1,500.

A common misconception is that these are "free gifts." They are not. These are intentional add-ons that you choose to include in your total purchase price. This allows you to utilize your full CME stipend to get both the high-quality pance prep courses you need and a gift card that can be used to purchase medical equipment, reference books, or updated technology for your clinic.

Earning 100 Category 1 AAPA Credits

For those preparing for the PANRE or the PANRE-LA, the most critical deliverable is the credit hour. Our PANRE Review Course is specifically designed to provide 100 Category 1 AAPA credits. This is a significant portion of your cycle requirements, delivered in a format that focuses on the NCCPA Blueprint.

When you are looking at panre review course options, the density of the credits matters. Earning 100 credits in a single, comprehensive program saves you the logistical headache of tracking dozens of smaller certificates from various sources. It ensures that your time is spent on high-yield clinical pearls rather than administrative tasks.

Emergency Medicine Focus: Clinical Vignettes

To stay sharp for your boards and your daily shifts, let’s look at how we approach clinical content. In the Emergency Medicine End of Rotation Review, we focus on rapid identification and stabilization.

Scenario 1
Your patient is a 54-year-old male presenting to the ED with acute onset of "tearing" chest pain that radiates to the back. His PMH includes uncontrolled hypertension. On physical exam, his BP is 190/110 mmHg in the right arm and 160/95 mmHg in the left arm. His HR is 105 bpm.

Question 1: What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study to confirm the suspected diagnosis in a hemodynamically stable patient?
A) Chest X-ray
B) Transthoracic Echocardiogram (TTE)
C) CT Angiography (CTA) of the chest and abdomen
D) Magnetic Resonance Angiography (MRA)

Answer: C) CT Angiography (CTA) of the chest and abdomen.
CTA is the gold standard for diagnosing an aortic dissection in stable patients due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It provides detailed anatomical information necessary for surgical planning. While a Chest X-ray might show a widened mediastinum, it is not diagnostic. MRA is highly accurate but often impractical in an acute ED setting due to the time required and monitoring difficulties.

Scenario 2
Your patient is a 28-year-old female complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. She recently returned from a cross-country flight. She takes oral contraceptive pills. Her HR is 112 bpm, RR is 24/min, and SaO2 is 92% on room air. Her calves are non-tender and symmetric.

Question 2: According to the Wells Criteria, what is the next best step in management?
A) Order a D-dimer
B) Perform a Bedside Ultrasound (POCUS) of the lower extremities
C) Order a CTA of the chest
D) Administer 325mg of Aspirin

Answer: C) Order a CTA of the chest.
This patient has a high clinical suspicion for Pulmonary Embolism (PE) based on risk factors (OCPs, recent immobilization) and clinical signs (tachycardia, tachypnea). In patients with a high pre-test probability (Wells Score > 4 or 6 depending on the version used), a D-dimer is not sufficient to rule out PE because a negative result would not outweigh the clinical suspicion. Immediate imaging with CTA is indicated.

Why PAs Choose Our PANCE Prep Courses

The core of our curriculum is built around the NCCPA Blueprint. We don't believe in teaching "fluff." We focus on the high-probability topics that are guaranteed to appear on your exams. Whether you are a student preparing for the initial PANCE or a seasoned PA-C tackling the PANRE, our courses are designed to respect your time.

Using cme gift cards to purchase these courses allows you to stay current with medical literature. For example, if you add a $500 Amazon gift card to your PA-CME purchase, you can use that card to buy the latest edition of Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine or a high-quality Littmann stethoscope. This integration of education and equipment is why the "CME with gift card" model has become the standard for modern clinicians.

Logistics and Deliverables

When you invest in your education, you need to know exactly what you are getting. Here are the hard facts for our premier offering:

• Course Title: PANRE Review Course
• Price: $600.00 – $2,100.00 (Depending on Gift Card Add-on)
• Credits: 100 Category 1 AAPA Credits
• Access Duration: 1 Year of Unlimited Access
• Deliverables: Comprehensive Video Modules, Practice Exams, and over 1,000 High-Yield Questions
• Gift Card Options: $100 to $1,500 Amazon or Apple Add-ons Available

Psychiatry and Behavioral Health Review

In addition to Emergency Medicine, our pance prep courses cover the heavy hitters like Psychiatry. Mental health makes up a significant portion of the NCCPA Blueprint.

Scenario 3
Your patient is a 19-year-old male college student brought in by his roommates. They report he hasn't slept in four days, is talking a "mile a minute," and recently spent his entire semester's tuition on a new motorcycle he doesn't know how to ride. On exam, he is irritable, distractible, and exhibits pressured speech. He denies any history of drug use.

Question 3: What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for this patient's acute presentation?
A) Sertraline
B) Lithium or Valproate
C) Alprazolam
D) Haloperidol monotherapy

Answer: B) Lithium or Valproate.
This patient is experiencing a manic episode, hallmark of Bipolar I Disorder. Mood stabilizers like Lithium or Valproate (often in combination with an atypical antipsychotic for acute agitation) are first-line. SSRIs like Sertraline should be avoided as they can precipitate or worsen a manic switch.

Maximizing Your CME Budget

Every year, many PAs leave thousands of dollars of CME money on the table because they can't find a program that fits their schedule or their needs. By choosing CME Review Courses, you are ensuring that your professional development funds are used to their maximum potential.

The flexibility of our platform allows you to study at your own pace. If you are working in Family Medicine but want to brush up on your acute care skills, our Emergency Medicine modules provide the specific, actionable data you need.

Remember, when you select the cme gift cards option, you are making a strategic decision for your career. You are getting the 100 Category 1 AAPA credits required for the PANRE Review Course, the clinical knowledge to improve patient outcomes, and the financial flexibility of an Amazon or Apple add-on to keep your practice running with the latest tools.

Don't let your CME allowance expire without getting the most out of it. Join the thousands of PAs who have switched to our high-yield, credit-dense review courses.

Final Clinical Thought

As you prepare for your next exam or your next shift, remember that diagnostic excellence comes from a solid foundation in the NCCPA Blueprint. Whether it's identifying a silent MI or managing a complex psychiatric crisis, the information contained in our pance prep courses is designed to be your primary resource. Invest in yourself, earn your credits, and get the add-ons that make your professional life easier.

Price: $9.99
Access: Permanent (No subscription, no login)
Deliverables: 240 full-length practice questions with detailed explanations

Preparing for the PANRE or PANRE-LA requires a shift from passive reading to active clinical reasoning. Most question banks encourage "answer-peeking" by placing the correct answer directly under the question or allowing a "show answer" button that is too easily clicked before the clinician has fully committed to a diagnostic or management path.

The PANRE/PANRE-LA Review Exam 1 eBook is designed specifically to disrupt this passive habit. By revealing the correct answer and the detailed explanations only after the five multiple-choice options, it forces a cognitive commitment. This method: known as retrieval practice: is the most effective way to identify knowledge gaps and ensure long-term retention of high-yield clinical facts.

High-Yield Content for the Working PA-C

This digital review is not a 2,000-question repository that takes months to navigate. It is a focused, high-yield tool for the working PA-C who needs to maximize study efficiency. Each question is written at the clinical complexity expected on the NCCPA Blueprint.

The eBook format provides portability, allowing you to review organ systems during a break in the clinic, between cases in the OR, or on a mobile device while commuting. Because there is no login or subscription required, you own the content permanently. This is especially valuable for those taking the PANRE-LA, where questions are spread over several years and a reliable, easy-access reference is required.

2025 NCCPA Blueprint Alignment

The exam is precisely weighted to reflect the NCCPA 2025 Content Blueprint. To pass the PANRE, you must master the proportions of the exam as much as the content itself. This exam distributes 240 questions across the 15 official categories to ensure you are spending the correct amount of time on high-stakes systems like Cardiovascular and Pulmonary medicine.

The question distribution for Exam 1 is as follows:

• Cardiovascular: 26 questions
• Pulmonary: 22 questions
• Gastrointestinal/Nutrition: 19 questions
• Musculoskeletal: 19 questions
• Infectious Diseases: 17 questions
• Neurology: 17 questions
• Psychiatry/Behavioral Science: 17 questions
• Reproductive: 17 questions
• Endocrine: 14 questions
• EENT: 14 questions
• Professional Practice: 14 questions
• Hematology: 12 questions
• Renal: 12 questions
• Dermatology: 10 questions
• Genitourinary: 10 questions

Clinical Vignette Assessment

Effective board preparation mimics the real-world clinical environment. Below are sample questions from the exam bank to demonstrate the required level of clinical reasoning.

Case 1: Cardiology

Your patient is a 68-year-old male presenting with a 3-day history of progressive dyspnea on exertion and a non-productive cough. He has a history of hypertension and a myocardial infarction four years ago. Physical exam reveals a HR of 105 bpm, BP of 155/92 mmHg, and SaO2 of 93% on room air. You note bilateral 2+ pitting edema and crackles in the lower lung fields. An S3 gallop is heard on auscultation.

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

A. Chest X-ray
B. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
C. Echocardiogram
D. 12-lead ECG
E. Cardiac Catheterization

Correct Answer: C. Echocardiogram

Explanation: The patient presents with classic signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF), likely an exacerbation of chronic heart failure. An echocardiogram is the definitive initial diagnostic test to assess left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) and differentiate between heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) and heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF).

• A. Chest X-ray is helpful for identifying pulmonary edema (Kerley B lines) but does not provide functional data on the heart.
• B. BNP is useful in the ED to differentiate dyspnea caused by CHF from pulmonary causes but does not confirm the underlying cardiac structure or function as well as an echo.
• D. 12-lead ECG may show signs of prior MI or LV hypertrophy but is not confirmatory for CHF diagnosis.
• E. Cardiac Catheterization is an invasive procedure used to assess coronary artery disease or hemodynamics but is not the first-line diagnostic test for CHF.

Case 2: Infectious Disease

Your patient is a 24-year-old female presenting with a 2-day history of dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic pain. She denies fever, chills, or flank pain. Vital signs are HR 78 bpm, BP 120/80 mmHg, and Temp 98.6°F. Urinalysis shows positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase.

Which of the following is the first-line treatment for this patient, assuming no known allergies and low local resistance patterns?

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Cephalexin
D. Azithromycin
E. Doxycycline

Correct Answer: B. Nitrofurantoin

Explanation: The patient has an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) 100 mg BID for 5 days is a first-line treatment recommended by current guidelines due to its efficacy and minimal impact on vaginal flora.

• A. Ciprofloxacin is effective but no longer recommended as first-line for uncomplicated UTIs due to concerns regarding side effects (tendon rupture) and increasing resistance.
• C. Cephalexin is an alternative but is typically reserved for cases where first-line agents cannot be used.
• D. Azithromycin and E. Doxycycline are used for urethritis (e.g., Chlamydia) but are not appropriate for bacterial cystitis.

Professional Practice and Ethics

A unique feature of the PANRE Review Exam is the inclusion of the Professional Practice category (14 questions). This section covers the "Legal and Ethical" portion of the NCCPA Blueprint, including topics such as:

• Informed consent
• Patient confidentiality (HIPAA)
• Medical errors and safety
• Physician-PA relationship
• End-of-life care and advanced directives

Understanding these concepts is critical for the 14 questions you will encounter on the 240-question exam.

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For many PA-Cs, the cost of board prep is covered by a yearly CME allowance. At cmereviewcourses.com, we offer advanced packages that allow you to bundle your learning with added value.

Our CME with Gift Card options are a popular way to utilize remaining CME funds. You can purchase a high-yield review course: such as the PANRE Review Course (which offers 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA Credit) or our Pharmacology Course: and add an Amazon or Apple gift card ($100 to $1,500) to your purchase. This allows you to purchase medical equipment, additional textbooks, or technology to further your professional development.

While physicians and nurse practitioners frequently find value in our content, it is important to note:

• The 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA Credit applies specifically to the PANRE Review Course on our website.
• Physicians can claim these credits as Category 2 CME.
• Nurse practitioners may claim Category 1 AAPA Credit in many states, though requirements vary by state board.

Start Your Review Today

Exam 1 is the first of a 3-exam series totaling 720 questions. You can choose to master one exam at a time or bundle them for a comprehensive review.

The eBook version offers the most cost-effective and portable way to begin your retrieval practice.

Buy PANRE/PANRE-LA Review Exam 1 on Amazon

For those seeking the full 100-hour Category 1 AAPA Credit experience with additional video content over Emergency Medicine, Family Medicine, Orthopedics, Cardiology, and more, visit our PANCE/PANRE Blueprint Review Course page.

Prepare with content written by physician assistants, for physician assistants. Stop passive studying and start committing to your clinical answers.

Product: PANRE Review Exam 1
Deliverables: 240-question practice examination with comprehensive explanations
Format: Ebook/Print via Amazon or Digital via CME Review Courses
Access: Permanent ownership; no subscription or login required
CME Credit: 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit available through the full PANRE Review Course

Preparing for the Physician Assistant National Recertification Exam (PANRE) or the PANRE-LA requires a shift from passive reading to active clinical reasoning. Most question banks encourage "answer-peeking" by displaying the correct choice immediately, which bypasses the cognitive effort required for long-term retention. PANRE Review Exam 1 is engineered to eliminate this habit. It provides a full-length, 240-question mock exam designed to mirror the actual testing environment of the NCCPA.

This resource is written by physician assistants for physician assistants. It prioritizes high-yield clinical facts and evidence-based medicine over esoteric details. Whether you are a seasoned PA-C or nearing your first recertification cycle, this exam provides the diagnostic and management scenarios you will encounter on test day.

The Active Recall Advantage

Passive study methods, such as highlighting text or rereading notes, offer a false sense of mastery. Real mastery is built through retrieval practice. The format of this exam forces you to commit to an answer before the correct choice and explanation are revealed.

Each question follows a 5-answer multiple-choice format, consistent with the NCCPA standard. By committing to an answer before checking the key, you engage the neural pathways responsible for recall. When a mistake is made, the subsequent correction is more likely to be retained. This "forced recall" method is particularly effective for the longitudinal assessment format (PANRE-LA), where speed and accuracy are paramount across various clinical systems.

Precise NCCPA Blueprint Alignment

Success on the PANRE depends on studying the right topics in the right proportions. PANRE Review Exam 1 is mapped directly to the NCCPA Blueprint categories. You will not find a skewed distribution of questions; instead, the 240 items are allocated based on the weight of each organ system as defined for the 2025 exam cycle.

The question distribution for Exam 1 is as follows:

• Cardiovascular: 26 questions
• Pulmonary: 22 questions
• Gastrointestinal/Nutrition: 19 questions
• Musculoskeletal: 19 questions
• Infectious Diseases: 17 questions
• Neurology: 17 questions
• Psychiatry/Behavioral Science: 17 questions
• Reproductive: 17 questions
• Endocrine: 14 questions
• EENT: 14 questions
• Professional Practice: 14 questions
• Hematology: 12 questions
• Renal: 12 questions
• Dermatology: 10 questions
• Genitourinary: 10 questions

This is Exam 1 of a 3-exam series. Utilizing all three exams provides a total of 720 blueprint-aligned questions, offering comprehensive coverage of all 15 organ systems.

Strategic CME Spending with Gift Card Add-ons

Physician assistants often have fixed annual CME allowances. We provide an efficient way to utilize these funds. Through cmereviewcourses.com, you can purchase CME packages that include Amazon or Apple gift card add-ons ranging from $100 to $1500. This allows you to secure high-yield educational materials while simultaneously acquiring the tools: such as tablets, medical equipment, or reference books: needed to further your clinical practice.

While our content is highly valued by nurse practitioners and physicians, note that AAPA Category 1 Credit for nurse practitioners is subject to state-specific regulations. For physicians, this content typically qualifies for Category 2 CME credit.

Clinical Assessment Practice Questions

The following scenarios represent the level of clinical complexity found in PANRE Review Exam 1. Use these to test your current knowledge.

Question 1

Your patient is a 54-year-old male with a history of hypertension and tobacco use who presents to the clinic with complaints of progressive exertional dyspnea and a non-productive cough. Physical examination reveals fine bibasilar inspiratory crackles and clubbing of the fingers. High-resolution CT (HRCT) of the chest demonstrates subpleural reticular opacities and honeycombing, primarily in the lower lobes. Pulmonary function testing (PFT) shows a restrictive pattern with a reduced DLCO. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Sarcoidosis
B) Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF)
C) Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
D) Asbestosis
E) Congestive Heart Failure

Correct Answer: B) Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF)
IPF is the correct diagnosis based on the clinical presentation of progressive dyspnea, finger clubbing, and the classic HRCT finding of "honeycombing" and subpleural reticulation in the lower lobes. PFTs in IPF typically show a restrictive pattern (decreased FVC, normal FEV1/FVC ratio) and a decreased DLCO. Sarcoidosis usually presents with hilar lymphadenopathy and non-caseating granulomas. Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis typically involves an identifiable environmental exposure and centrilobular nodules on CT. Asbestosis would require a significant occupational history and often shows pleural plaques. Congestive Heart Failure would present with cardiomegaly, Kerley B lines, and symptoms like orthopnea.

Question 2

Your patient is a 29-year-old female, G1P0 at 34 weeks gestation, who presents to the labor and delivery unit with a headache, blurry vision, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 164/112 mmHg. Urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. AST and ALT are twice the upper limit of normal, and her platelet count is 88,000/µL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Outpatient monitoring with weekly NSTs
B) Immediate delivery via Cesarean section
C) Administration of Magnesium Sulfate and preparation for delivery
D) Oral Labetalol and discharge home with follow-up in 24 hours
E) Bed rest and repeat labs in 48 hours

Correct Answer: C) Administration of Magnesium Sulfate and preparation for delivery
The correct management is Magnesium Sulfate for seizure prophylaxis and proceeding toward delivery. This patient meets the criteria for Preeclampsia with Severe Features (BP >160/110, headache, visual changes, epigastric pain, and thrombocytopenia). At 34 weeks, the definitive treatment for severe preeclampsia is delivery. Outpatient monitoring or bed rest is contraindicated in severe preeclampsia due to the risk of maternal and fetal morbidity. Immediate Cesarean is not necessarily required; induction of labor is often preferred unless there are other obstetric indications for surgery. Oral Labetalol alone is insufficient and discharging the patient is dangerous.

Question 3

Your patient is a 62-year-old male presenting with sudden onset of severe "tearing" chest pain that radiates to the back between the scapulae. On examination, he is diaphoretic with a blood pressure of 185/105 mmHg in the right arm and 155/90 mmHg in the left arm. A chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?

A) Transthoracic Echocardiogram (TTE)
B) CT Angiography (CTA) of the chest and abdomen
C) Exercise Stress Test
D) Cardiac Catheterization
E) D-dimer assay

Correct Answer: B) CT Angiography (CTA) of the chest and abdomen
CT Angiography is the preferred initial diagnostic test for suspected aortic dissection in a hemodynamically stable patient due to its high sensitivity and ability to delineate the extent of the dissection. The presentation of "tearing" pain and a blood pressure discrepancy between arms is classic for aortic dissection. TTE is often insufficient to visualize the descending aorta; a Transesophageal Echocardiogram (TEE) would be more sensitive but is more invasive. Stress testing is contraindicated in acute chest pain of this nature. Cardiac Catheterization might be used to evaluate coronaries but is not the initial test for dissection. D-dimer is non-specific and should not delay imaging when clinical suspicion is high.

Preparation Summary

The journey to recertification does not have to be an overwhelming process of trial and error. By utilizing a blueprint-aligned, active recall-based practice exam, you can identify knowledge gaps and refine your clinical reasoning before the stakes are high.

PANRE Review Exam 1 is available for purchase today. You can find the printed or ebook version directly on Amazon. For those looking to maximize their CME allowance with gift card add-ons, visit CME Review Courses to explore our full suite of PANRE and Pharmacology review options.

Invest in your education effectively. Commit to the answer, master the blueprint, and secure your recertification.

Price: $9.99
Format: Paperback / eBook
Content: 100% PAEA Blueprint Aligned
Deliverables: 14 Clinical System Reviews + 120-Question Practice Exam

The Family Medicine End of Rotation (EOR) exam is the broadest assessment in the physician assistant clinical year. Unlike specialty rotations where the scope is narrow, family medicine requires proficiency across the entire lifespan, from pediatric developmental milestones to geriatric end-of-life care. To pass with a high score, you must move beyond passive reading and focus on high-yield clinical presentations, initial diagnostic workups, and first-line treatment protocols.

Direct Alignment with the 2026 PAEA Blueprint

Success on the EOR requires studying specifically for what is tested. The Family Medicine End of Rotation Review: High-Yield Prep for Physician Assistants is built around the official PAEA topic list. This guide eliminates the noise of traditional textbooks and focuses on the high-probability topics that will actually appear on your 120-question exam.

The exam is weighted heavily toward three key areas:

• Cardiovascular Disorders (15%)
• Pulmonology Disorders (12%)
• Gastrointestinal & Nutritional Disorders (11%)

Mastering these three systems alone accounts for nearly 40% of your total score. Our guide prioritizes these high-yield systems while providing comprehensive coverage of the remaining 11 categories, including EENT, OB/GYN, Orthopedics, and Psychiatry.

Strategic Content Breakdown

Clinical rotations are fast-paced, and your study time is limited. Each chapter in this review book is written in a functional, declarative style. We emphasize pathophysiology only where it clarifies the "why" behind the clinical presentation.

Cardiovascular Pearls: Focus on the differentiation of murmurs, the management of hypertension according to current JNC and ACC/AHA guidelines, and the initial workup of stable vs. unstable angina in an outpatient setting.

Pulmonology High-Yields: You must be able to distinguish between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases on PFTs. Expect questions on the stepwise management of asthma and the appropriate antibiotic selection for community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) based on comorbidities.

Gastrointestinal Focus: The exam frequently tests the PALM-COEIN classification for abnormal uterine bleeding and the management of common primary care complaints like GERD, PUD, and biliary disease.

Master the 120-Question Practice Exam

The best way to prepare for a 120-question exam is to take a 120-question exam. At the conclusion of this book, you will find a full-length practice bank designed to simulate the real exam environment.

Each clinical vignette is crafted to mirror the difficulty level of the PAEA exam. We provide five answer choices for every item and detailed explanations that explain why the correct answer is the gold standard and why the distractors are incorrect. This active recall method is the most efficient way to identify and correct your knowledge gaps before test day.

Maximize Your CME Efficiency

While students focus on passing the EOR, practicing PAs must focus on maintaining certification. CME Review Courses offers an efficient way to use your CME money through our PANRE Review Course, which provides 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA Credit.

For those looking to enrich their education further, we offer CME with Amazon and Apple Gift Card add-ons. These packages allow you to add a gift card ranging from $100 to $1500 to your CME purchase, providing a streamlined way to acquire the medical resources or technology you need for your practice.

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Clinical Assessment: Practice Questions

Question 1

Your patient is a 64-year-old male presenting with a 3-month history of exertional chest pain that is relieved by rest. He has a history of hypertension and tobacco use. His HR is 82, BP is 138/88 mmHg, and SaO2 is 98% on room air. An EKG performed in the office is normal. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test to evaluate for coronary artery disease in this patient?

A. Cardiac Catheterization
B. Exercise Stress Test
C. Coronary CT Angiography
D. Resting Echocardiogram
E. Pharmacologic Stress Test

Correct Answer: B. Exercise Stress Test
Explanation: In a patient with stable angina symptoms and a normal baseline EKG, the Exercise Stress Test is the appropriate initial non-invasive choice to evaluate for ischemia. It is cost-effective and provides functional data regarding the patient's exercise capacity. Cardiac Catheterization (A) is the gold standard but is invasive and reserved for patients with high-risk findings or refractory symptoms. Coronary CT Angiography (C) is useful for ruling out CAD in low-to-intermediate risk patients but is not the standard first-line functional test here. Resting Echocardiogram (D) evaluates wall motion and valves but does not assess for inducible ischemia. Pharmacologic Stress Test (E) is only indicated if the patient cannot exercise.

Question 2

Your patient is a 24-year-old female presenting with a "sore throat" and malaise for one week. On physical exam, you note posterior cervical lymphadenopathy and an enlarged spleen. Rapid strep test is negative. What is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

A. Throat Culture
B. Monospot (Heterophile Antibody) Test
C. CT Abdomen
D. Lateral Neck X-ray
E. CBC with Differential

Correct Answer: B. Monospot (Heterophile Antibody) Test
Explanation: The clinical presentation of posterior cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly is highly suggestive of Infectious Mononucleosis. The Monospot test is the appropriate next step. Throat Culture (A) is redundant if the concern is viral mononucleosis. CT Abdomen (C) is not indicated for initial diagnosis, though it may visualize splenomegaly. Lateral Neck X-ray (D) is used for suspected epiglottitis, which presents with acute airway distress. CBC with Differential (E) may show atypical lymphocytosis but is less specific than the heterophile antibody test.

Question 3

Your patient is a 55-year-old male with a history of COPD presenting with increased cough and purulent sputum production. He is afebrile with a RR of 20 and SaO2 of 91% on room air. Chest X-ray shows no acute infiltrates. What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for this acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis?

A. Vancomycin
B. Azithromycin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Metronidazole
E. Amoxicillin-clavulanate

Correct Answer: E. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Explanation: In patients with COPD exacerbation and increased sputum purulence, Amoxicillin-clavulanate is a first-line choice to cover common pathogens like H. influenzae and M. catarrhalis. Vancomycin (A) is for MRSA and is not appropriate here. Azithromycin (B) is often used but has increasing resistance. Ciprofloxacin (C) is a fluoroquinolone typically reserved for suspected Pseudomonas. Metronidazole (D) covers anaerobes and is not indicated for standard COPD exacerbation.

Question 4

Your patient is a 42-year-old female complaining of a "burning" sensation in her chest that is worse after eating spicy foods and when lying down at night. She has tried OTC antacids with minimal relief. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Upper Endoscopy (EGD)
B. Lifestyle modifications and H2-receptor antagonist
C. Referral to General Surgery
D. 24-hour pH monitoring
E. H. pylori stool antigen test

Correct Answer: B. Lifestyle modifications and H2-receptor antagonist
Explanation: For uncomplicated Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) without "alarm symptoms" (dysphagia, weight loss, anemia), the initial step is lifestyle modifications and H2-receptor antagonists or PPIs. Upper Endoscopy (A) is reserved for patients over 50 or those with alarm symptoms. Referral to General Surgery (C) is only for refractory cases requiring fundoplication. 24-hour pH monitoring (D) is the gold standard but is not the initial step. H. pylori testing (E) is more relevant for suspected peptic ulcer disease rather than classic GERD.

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About the Author

Jeremy Boroff PA-C is a veteran healthcare provider with over 30 years of experience in the medical field. Having served as a Physician Assistant for over 24 years and a Registered Respiratory Therapist for 7 years, Jeremy has a profound understanding of clinical education. He has spent over two decades in the Emergency Department at St. Rita’s Medical Center and is the CEO of CME Review Courses. His mission is to provide PAs and PA students with the high-yield tools they need to succeed in their careers.

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