CME Review Courses

Price: $399.99 for the base course; total package price equals $399.99 plus the selected gift card amount ($100–$1,500).
Duration: 30 months of continuous access.
Deliverables: 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME (PANRE Review), 12 hours of AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME (Pharmacology), and a combined total of over 1,700 board-style questions.

As the 2026 fiscal year draws to a close, many physician assistants (PAs) and nurse practitioners find themselves with remaining CME stipend funds that will expire if not utilized. June 30th is the critical deadline for many clinicians who need to use their 2026 CME stipend for a PANRE preparation strategy before those funds disappear. This "use it or lose it" scenario presents a critical opportunity to secure high-yield educational resources and maximize your professional benefits. The most effective strategy for managing an expiring stipend is to invest in a comprehensive review course that covers the NCCPA Blueprint while providing long-term access and tangible value through gift card add-ons. If your goal is to turn expiring education funds into a practical recertification plan, June 30th needs to stay front and center.

Securing Your PANRE Success

The PANRE (Physician Assistant National Recertification Exam) remains a high-stakes milestone in your career. Preparation requires more than just a cursory review of medical topics; it necessitates a structured approach to the NCCPA Blueprint. Our PANRE Review Course is designed to be the core of your recertification strategy.

By selecting this course, you receive 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME. It is vital to note that for NCCPA certification maintenance, self-assessment credits are weighted at 150%. This means that completing this single course fulfills 150 credits toward your NCCPA requirements, effectively streamlining your certification cycle.

The Strategic Advantage of Gift Card Add-Ons

A common challenge with CME stipends is the fixed amount allocated by employers. If your stipend is $2,000 but the course you need is only $399, you risk leaving money on the table. Our "CME with Gift Card" model allows you to bridge this gap efficiently. You can add an Amazon or Apple gift card ranging from $100 to $1,500 to your purchase.

This approach serves two purposes. First, it ensures your entire 2026 stipend is utilized before the expiration date. If your employer requires CME funds to be used by June 30th, this becomes a practical way to execute your PANRE strategy before that deadline passes. Second, it provides you with funds to further enrich your education, whether that involves purchasing medical equipment, upgrading your hardware for better study access, or acquiring additional textbooks. This is an efficient, transparent way to use your CME money to its fullest potential, especially when June 30th is the critical cutoff for using 2026 CME stipend dollars.

Pharmacology Credits for Prescriptive Authority

In addition to the PANRE Review, maintaining prescriptive authority often requires dedicated pharmacology hours. Our Pharmacology Review Course provides 12.0 hours of AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME. While the PANRE course is the heavy hitter for total hours, the pharmacology content is essential for meeting specific state-mandated requirements for nurse practitioners and PAs alike. This content was written by physician assistants for physician assistants, ensuring the clinical vignettes and pharmacology details are relevant to daily practice.

Practice Management and Long-Term Access

Professional training should not be a rushed endeavor. All our packages provide 30 months of access. This allows you to purchase the course now with your 2026 funds and continue using the materials well into 2028. Whether you are preparing for the traditional PANRE or the PANRE-LA, having a stable, updated question bank and lecture series at your disposal is invaluable.

The content covers a broad spectrum of medical specialties, including:

• Cardiology
• Emergency Medicine
• Family Medicine
• Internal Medicine (Hospitalist)
• Orthopedics
• Dermatology
• Psychiatry
• Neurology
• OB/GYN

While the primary audience is physician assistants, physicians and nurse practitioners frequently find value in these packages. For physicians, these courses count as Category 2 CME. Nurse practitioners can claim Category 1 AAPA credit toward their certification, though they should verify specific state board acceptance.

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Clinical Assessment and Vignette Review

Your patient is a 64-year-old male presenting to the emergency department with a 2-hour history of sudden-onset, "tearing" chest pain that radiates to his back between the scapulae. His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled hypertension. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 190/110 mmHg in the right arm and 165/95 mmHg in the left arm. His heart rate is 105 bpm. A new diastolic murmur is noted at the right sternal border. The patient appears diaphoretic and in significant distress.

What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic imaging study to confirm the suspected diagnosis in this patient?

A. Chest X-ray
B. Transthoracic Echocardiogram (TTE)
C. Computed Tomography Angiography (CTA) of the chest and abdomen
D. Magnetic Resonance Angiography (MRA)
E. Coronary Angiography

Correct Answer: C. Computed Tomography Angiography (CTA) of the chest and abdomen

Explanation:
The clinical presentation is highly suggestive of an acute aortic dissection. The key indicators are the sudden "tearing" pain, significant blood pressure discrepancy between arms, and the presence of a new aortic insufficiency murmur (diastolic murmur at the right sternal border). CTA of the chest and abdomen is the gold standard for rapid, definitive diagnosis in a stable or relatively stable patient. It provides detailed information regarding the extent of the dissection and involvement of major arterial branches.

• A. Chest X-ray: While a widened mediastinum may be seen, it is neither sensitive nor specific enough to confirm a dissection.
• B. TTE: This may show signs of aortic insufficiency or a pericardial effusion but is generally insufficient to visualize the entire thoracic aorta for a definitive dissection diagnosis; Transesophageal Echocardiogram (TEE) is preferred if CTA is unavailable or the patient is unstable.
• D. MRA: Although highly accurate, the time required to perform MRA makes it inappropriate for an acute, life-threatening emergency.
• E. Coronary Angiography: This is used for assessing coronary artery disease and is not the primary diagnostic tool for aortic dissection.

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Your patient is a 28-year-old female who presents with a 3-day history of increasing lower abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, and dyspareunia. She reports having a new sexual partner in the last month and does not consistently use barrier protection. On examination, her temperature is 101.2°F (38.4°C). Pelvic examination reveals significant cervical motion tenderness and bilateral adnexal tenderness. A pregnancy test is negative. Microscopic examination of the vaginal discharge shows numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line outpatient antibiotic regimen for this patient?

A. Oral Azithromycin 1g as a single dose
B. Intramuscular Ceftriaxone 500mg once plus oral Doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 14 days
C. Oral Ciprofloxacin 500mg twice daily for 7 days
D. Oral Amoxicillin-Clavulanate 875mg twice daily for 10 days
E. Intramuscular Penicillin G Benzathine 2.4 million units once

Correct Answer: B. Intramuscular Ceftriaxone 500mg once plus oral Doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 14 days

Explanation:
The patient’s symptoms and physical findings (fever, cervical motion tenderness, adnexal tenderness) meet the clinical criteria for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID). The recommended outpatient treatment regimen must provide broad-spectrum coverage against the most common pathogens, including Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis. IM Ceftriaxone 500mg plus oral Doxycycline (100mg BID for 14 days) is the standard of care. Metronidazole is often added if there is a suspicion of anaerobic infection or trichomoniasis.

• A. Azithromycin: This is used for uncomplicated chlamydial urethritis/cervicitis but is insufficient as monotherapy for PID.
• C. Ciprofloxacin: Fluoroquinolones are no longer recommended for gonorrhea due to high levels of resistance.
• D. Amoxicillin-Clavulanate: Does not provide adequate coverage for the primary pathogens involved in PID.
• E. Penicillin G Benzathine: This is the treatment for syphilis, not PID.

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Your patient is a 45-year-old male with a history of chronic alcoholism who presents to the clinic complaining of recurrent episodes of epigastric pain that radiates to his back. The pain is often worse after meals. He also reports frequent, bulky, foul-smelling stools that are difficult to flush. A plain abdominal radiograph shows calcifications in the upper abdomen.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Chronic Cholecystitis
B. Peptic Ulcer Disease
C. Chronic Pancreatitis
D. Celiac Disease
E. Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma

Correct Answer: C. Chronic Pancreatitis

Explanation:
The triad of chronic epigastric pain, steatorrhea (bulky, foul-smelling stools), and pancreatic calcifications seen on imaging is diagnostic for Chronic Pancreatitis. Alcoholism is the leading cause in adults. The calcifications are a result of long-standing inflammation and damage to the pancreatic parenchyma.

• A. Chronic Cholecystitis: Typically presents with biliary colic associated with gallstones; it does not cause pancreatic calcifications or steatorrhea.
• B. Peptic Ulcer Disease: Pain is often relieved or exacerbated by food but does not present with steatorrhea or abdominal calcifications.
• D. Celiac Disease: Causes malabsorption and steatorrhea but does not cause epigastric pain radiating to the back or pancreatic calcifications.
• E. Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma: While it can cause pain and weight loss, the presence of diffuse calcifications in a patient with chronic alcohol use more strongly points to chronic pancreatitis.

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Maximizing your 2026 CME stipend requires a proactive approach. June 30th is the critical date to keep in mind if you are using 2026 CME funds to build your PANRE study plan. By choosing the PANRE Review Course with a Gift Card Add-On, you address your immediate educational needs, satisfy NCCPA credit requirements with weighted self-assessment hours, and ensure your professional development funds are fully utilized before they expire. If you are waiting to decide how to spend remaining CME money, do not lose sight of the June 30th deadline for putting those 2026 stipend funds toward a PANRE strategy.

Course Name: Pharmacology CME Review Package
Price: $399.99 (Base Price)
Access Duration: 30 Months
Deliverables: 12 AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment Credits, 120 Practice Questions, Pharmacology Lecture Videos
Gift Card Add-ons: $100 – $1500 (Amazon or Apple)

Staying current with pharmacology is not just a clinical necessity; it is a regulatory requirement for most practicing PAs and NPs. Whether you are maintaining your NCCPA certification or meeting state-specific requirements for prescriptive authority, the demand for high-quality, efficient pharmacology CME has never been higher.

Many states now mandate a specific number of pharmacology hours to maintain a license to prescribe controlled substances. Finding a course that fits into a busy clinical schedule while providing significant value for your CME budget is the primary challenge.

Clinical Scenario 1: Hypertension Management

Your patient is a 64-year-old African American male with a history of type 2 diabetes and newly diagnosed Stage 2 hypertension. His current blood pressure is 152/94 mmHg. His renal function is within normal limits (Cr 1.0, eGFR >60). You are initiating pharmacological therapy.

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial medication choice for this patient?

A) Lisinopril
B) Metoprolol
C) Amlodipine
D) Losartan

Correct Answer: C) Amlodipine
Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker (CCB), which, along with thiazide-type diuretics, is recommended as first-line therapy for the African American population according to JNC 8 and AHA/ACC guidelines, even in patients with diabetes. While ACE inhibitors (Lisinopril) or ARBs (Losartan) are preferred for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) or albuminuria, they are less effective at reducing blood pressure in the African American population without those specific comorbidities compared to CCBs or diuretics. Beta-blockers like Metoprolol are no longer recommended as first-line therapy for uncomplicated hypertension.

The Efficiency of Self-Assessment Credits

The Pharmacology CME Review Package is specifically designed to provide 12 AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME credits. For Physician Assistants, these credits are particularly valuable. The NCCPA currently applies an additional 50 percent weighting to self-assessment credits. This means that completing this 12-credit course actually results in 18 credits being applied to your NCCPA certification maintenance total.

This course serves as a targeted review of essential pharmacological principles, focusing on drug-drug interactions, prescribing safety, and the management of common chronic conditions. It was written by physician assistants for physician assistants, ensuring the content is practical and relevant to daily practice.

Clinical Scenario 2: Endocrine Emergencies

Your patient is a 42-year-old female with a known history of Graves' disease who presents to the emergency department with tachycardia (HR 145), agitation, and hyperthermia (103.2°F). You suspect thyroid storm.

In addition to supportive care, which medication should be administered first to block the peripheral effects of thyroid hormone?

A) Propylthiouracil (PTU)
B) Propranolol
C) Methimazole
D) Lugol’s solution

Correct Answer: B) Propranolol
Propranolol is the correct initial choice to provide immediate symptomatic relief by blocking the peripheral adrenergic effects of the thyroid hormone, such as tachycardia and agitation. While Propylthiouracil (PTU) and Methimazole are used to stop the synthesis of new hormones, and Lugol’s solution blocks the release of stored hormones, the immediate life-threatening peripheral symptoms must be addressed first. Propranolol also has the added benefit of inhibiting the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.

Maximizing Your CME Budget with Gift Card Add-ons

One of the most efficient ways to utilize your employer-provided CME allowance is through the use of CME with Amazon and Apple Gift Card add-ons. This allows you to combine your educational purchase with a gift card ranging from $100 to $1500.

• Amazon Gift Cards: These are processed within 2-3 business days and delivered via email. They allow you to purchase additional educational materials, medical equipment, or other resources to support your practice.
• Apple Gift Cards: Ideal for those looking to upgrade their clinical hardware, such as a new iPad or MacBook, to facilitate on-the-go learning and EMR access.

The price of the gift card is included in the total package price. This provides a streamlined way to enrich your education while ensuring you get the most out of your professional development funds.

Who is This Course For?

While the content was created by PAs, it provides significant value across the healthcare spectrum:

• Physician Assistants: Earn 12 AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment credits (weighted to 18 NCCPA credits).
• Nurse Practitioners: The AANP typically accepts AAPA Category 1 credits. NPs often use this course to meet their pharmacology-specific contact hour requirements for license renewal.
• Physicians: Physicians can claim this course as Category 2 CME. It is frequently utilized by Internal Medicine and Family Medicine physicians for high-yield pharmacology updates.

Clinical Scenario 3: Cardiology and Anti-Coagulation

Your patient is a 72-year-old female with a history of non-valvular atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 4. She is currently taking Dabigatran (Pradaxa). She presents to the ER with significant gastrointestinal bleeding.

Which agent is the specific reversal agent for Dabigatran?

A) Protamine sulfate
B) Idarucizumab
C) Andexanet alfa
D) Vitamin K

Correct Answer: B) Idarucizumab
Idarucizumab (Praxbind) is a monoclonal antibody fragment specifically designed to reverse the effects of Dabigatran. Protamine sulfate is used for heparin reversal. Andexanet alfa is the reversal agent for factor Xa inhibitors like Rivaroxaban and Apixaban. Vitamin K is used for Warfarin reversal.

Comprehensive Learning Options

If you are looking for more than just pharmacology, the PANRE Review Course offers 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit. This course covers a broad range of topics including Emergency Medicine, Family Medicine, Internal Medicine, Orthopedics, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Neurology, Cardiology, and OB/GYN. Like the Pharmacology course, the PANRE Review also offers the option to add on Amazon or Apple gift cards.

The Pharmacology CME Review includes:

• 120 High-Yield Questions: Designed to test application, not just rote memorization.
• Lecture Videos: Focused, expert-led content covering key pharmacology topics.
• 30-Month Access: Plenty of time to complete the course at your own pace.

Investing in your pharmacology knowledge is essential for patient safety and professional competence. By choosing a course that offers both high-quality accreditation and the added value of a gift card, you are making the most of your time and your CME budget.

Price: $399.99 for the base PANRE Review Course
Duration: 30 months of on-demand access
Deliverables: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME and 1,672 board-style questions

Successfully passing the PANCE or PANRE requires more than just high-volume reading. The sheer volume of the NCCPA Blueprint can be overwhelming for any Physician Assistant or student. While many enroll in multiple pance prep courses, the most common mistake is passive consumption of material. To increase your scores immediately, you must move from passive reading to active, blueprint-focused retrieval.

The following "simple trick" is the highest-yield adjustment you can make to your study routine: The Missed-Question Blueprint Loop.

The Missed-Question Blueprint Loop

Most students take a practice test, check their score, and move on. This is a wasted opportunity. To improve your scores, you must treat every missed question as a diagnostic tool for your knowledge gaps based on the NCCPA Blueprint.

1. Categorize Your Errors: Every time you miss a question in your PANRE Review Course, immediately identify which section of the NCCPA Blueprint it falls under (e.g., Cardiology, GI, or Pulmonary).
2. The "One Fact" Rule: For every missed question, find the one clinical fact you lacked to get it right. Is it the first-line treatment for a PID? The specific EKG finding for a PE?
3. Active Recall Re-testing: Instead of re-reading the whole chapter, test yourself specifically on that "One Fact" 24 hours later, then 72 hours later.

By focusing strictly on the topics the NCCPA emphasizes, you stop wasting time on "low-yield" trivia and start mastering the core competencies required for certification.

Applying the Blueprint to Clinical Scenarios

Practical application is the only way to solidify these concepts. Below are clinical vignettes designed to test your knowledge of high-yield NCCPA Blueprint topics. Use these to practice your active recall right now.

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Practice Questions

Question 1
Your patient is a 54-year-old male with a history of HTN and tobacco use who presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset, "tearing" chest pain that radiates to his back. His vitals are: HR 110, BP 175/95 (left arm) and 150/80 (right arm), SaO2 96% on RA. A chest X-ray reveals a widened mediastinum. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study for a stable patient?

A. Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE)
B. CT angiography of the chest and abdomen
C. Aortic angiography
D. MRA of the chest

Question 2
Your patient is a 28-year-old female presenting with pelvic pain and vaginal discharge. On physical exam, there is significant cervical motion tenderness (Chandelier sign) and adnexal tenderness. Her temperature is 101.2°F. You suspect PID. According to current guidelines, what is the recommended outpatient antibiotic regimen?

A. Ceftriaxone 500mg IM + Doxycycline 100mg BID for 14 days + Metronidazole 500mg BID for 14 days
B. Ciprofloxacin 500mg BID for 10 days
C. Azithromycin 1g single dose
D. Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM

Question 3
Your patient is a 62-year-old male presenting with acute shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He recently underwent a total hip arthroplasty. On exam, he is tachycardic (HR 115) and tachypneic. His SaO2 is 89% on RA. You suspect a pulmonary embolism (PE). What EKG finding, while not most common, is most classic for this condition?

A. Normal Sinus Rhythm
B. S1Q3T3 pattern
C. Right Bundle Branch Block
D. Diffuse ST-elevation

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Explanations

Question 1: The correct answer is B. CT angiography of the chest and abdomen.
In a hemodynamically stable patient with suspected aortic dissection (suggested by "tearing" pain and asymmetric blood pressures), CT angiography is the gold standard for rapid and accurate diagnosis. It allows for the visualization of the intimal flap and the extent of the dissection. TEE (Choice A) is excellent for unstable patients or those with renal failure, but CT is preferred for initial mapping in stable cases. Aortic angiography (Choice C) was once the standard but has been largely replaced by non-invasive imaging.

Question 2: The correct answer is A. Ceftriaxone 500mg IM + Doxycycline 100mg BID for 14 days + Metronidazole 500mg BID for 14 days.
Current CDC guidelines for outpatient management of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) recommend a combination of Ceftriaxone for N. gonorrhoeae, Doxycycline for C. trachomatis, and Metronidazole to cover anaerobic organisms. Monotherapy with Ciprofloxacin (Choice B) is no longer recommended due to resistance. Azithromycin (Choice C) is insufficient for PID. Penicillin G (Choice D) is the treatment for syphilis, not PID.

Question 3: The correct answer is B. S1Q3T3 pattern.
While sinus tachycardia is the most common EKG finding in PE, the S1Q3T3 pattern (large S wave in lead I, Q wave in lead III, and inverted T wave in lead III) is the "classic" finding associated with acute right heart strain. Right Bundle Branch Block (Choice C) can occur but is less specific. Diffuse ST-elevation (Choice D) is more indicative of pericarditis.

Optimize Your CME Budget

Preparing for the PANCE or PANRE is a significant investment of time and resources. We offer an efficient way to use your CME money by providing high-quality content written by physician assistants for physician assistants.

Our PANRE Review Course provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit. This is a critical distinction; when you log these 100 self-assessment credits with the NCCPA, they are automatically weighted at 150%, fulfilling a massive portion of your requirements in one step.

We also understand the value of professional incentives. Our CME with Amazon and Apple Gift Card add-ons allow you to bundle $100 to $1,500 into your purchase. This allows you to further enrich your education while maximizing your employer-provided CME allowance.

Comprehensive Review Materials

To truly excel, you need resources that mirror the actual exam environment. Our PANRE Review Course with Gift Card includes 17 hours of video lectures and over 1,600 questions.

If you are focusing specifically on prescriptive authority, our Pharmacology CME Review with Gift Card Package offers 12 hours of Category 1 credit. Please note that while our courses provide Category 1 credit for PAs, physicians may find value in these packages as Category 2 CME. Nurse practitioners should verify state-specific acceptance of AAPA credits.

Summary of the Simple Trick

To raise your scores today, stop reading and start testing. Use the NCCPA Blueprint as your map, and use our board-style questions to find your "unknown unknowns." By cycling through your missed questions and understanding the clinical reasoning behind the correct answers, you ensure that test day is just another day of practice.

For more resources, view the full NCCPA Blueprint Content Areas or browse our CME with Gift Card options.

If your department, employer, or CME budget follows a mid-year cycle, June 30 can be a real cutoff point for unused funds. If you wait too long, those dollars may disappear instead of being applied toward CME you actually need.

At CME Review Courses, you can use eligible CME funds on high-yield educational content and add Amazon or Apple gift cards to qualifying packages. That gives you a practical way to use remaining budget before the deadline while still prioritizing CME value.

Why June 30 Matters

Many clinicians hit the same problem every year:

• CME funds are available now
• Scheduling gets pushed back
• The deadline arrives
• Remaining money is lost

If you know your funding resets at mid-year, the simplest move is to act before June 30. Waiting until July may mean starting over with a new approval cycle or losing access to funds that were already available.

What You Can Use CME Funds For

CME Review Courses focuses on practical CME options for clinician exam prep and content review:

• PANRE Review Course
• Pharmacology CME Course
• Amazon gift card add-ons
• Apple gift card add-ons

This is especially useful if you are trying to maximize remaining budget while also getting meaningful educational content. The goal is straightforward: use the funds before they expire and get CME that you will actually use.

Best Fit for Clinicians Facing a Mid-Year Deadline

This approach makes sense if:

• Your CME budget expires on June 30
• You still need to use employer-provided education funds
• You want a direct purchase tied to CME content
• You want to avoid scrambling at the end of the month
• You are planning ahead for PANRE review or pharmacology credit

Act Before Mid-Year Funds Expire

If your CME money is tied to a June 30 deadline, do not assume you can handle it later. End-of-cycle budget rules are often strict. Once the deadline passes, the unused balance may be gone.

Review your available funds now, confirm what your employer allows, and make your purchase before the end of June. That is the cleanest way to avoid losing money that is already set aside for your education.

Practice Questions

Question 1

Your employer gives you a CME allowance that expires on June 30. You have not used the remaining balance, and your approval process usually slows down at the end of the month. What is the most practical next step?

A. Wait until July and ask if the funds can be restored
B. Delay your purchase until your next license renewal cycle
C. Use the available CME funds before June 30 on eligible educational content
D. Ignore the deadline because CME budgets usually roll over automatically

Correct answer: C. Use the available CME funds before June 30 on eligible educational content.
If your funds expire at mid-year, the practical move is to use them before the deadline. Waiting until July risks losing the balance. The other options depend on assumptions that may not be true and are less reliable than acting before the cutoff.

Question 2

You want CME content that supports review needs and also offers the option to add value to the purchase before your mid-year budget expires. Which choice best matches that goal?

A. Postpone all CME purchases until later in the year
B. Choose a CME package that includes educational content with Amazon or Apple gift card add-on options
C. Use the budget on non-educational expenses first
D. Let the funds expire and request a larger budget next cycle

Correct answer: B. Choose a CME package that includes educational content with Amazon or Apple gift card add-on options.
This directly addresses the problem of unused CME funds before June 30. It ties the spending to CME content while helping you make full use of the available budget. The other choices either delay action or increase the chance that the funds will be lost.

Price: $399.99
Duration: Lifetime Access
Deliverables: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 CME Credit, Comprehensive PANRE-LA Question Bank, High-Yield Video Content

The shift from the high-stakes, single-day PANRE to the longitudinal assessment (PANRE-LA) has changed the recertification landscape for physician assistants. While the 12-quarter format is designed to reduce the "one-and-done" exam anxiety, it introduces a new challenge: maintaining a consistent level of clinical readiness over a three-year period. For the busy PA balancing a full patient load, administrative duties, and personal life, the PANRE-LA can easily become another source of background stress.

The goal is not just to pass, but to do so efficiently without allowing the assessment to consume your limited free time. This requires a strategy that leverages high-yield review materials and maximizes the utility of your CME budget.

Strategy 1: Understanding the 12-Quarter Architecture

The NCCPA allows you to participate in up to 12 quarters, but your score is calculated based on your best 8 quarters. You must complete at least one quarter in the first year and one in the second. Each quarter consists of 25 multiple-choice questions with a five-minute time limit per question.

Efficiency is key. Many PAs make the mistake of over-studying for every individual quarter. Instead, focus on the PANRE Review Course, which provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit. This course is specifically aligned with the NCCPA Blueprint and covers the organ systems that dominate the assessment. By utilizing a structured review early in your year 7 cycle, you build a foundation that makes the quarterly questions a simple verification of knowledge rather than a frantic search for answers.

There is also a practical deadline issue. If you still have CME funds available, June 30 is the key date for spending your CME budget and securing credit before many annual allowance cycles close out. In the context of PANRE-LA preparation, that matters because delaying your purchase pushes both your study plan and your credit acquisition later into the cycle. Using the June 30 deadline to lock in your PANRE review materials now is a straightforward way to move PANRE-LA prep and CME completion forward at the same time.

Strategy 2: The Open-Book Myth

The PANRE-LA is technically open-book, but the five-minute timer is a significant constraint. If you are searching for the diagnostic criteria for Endocarditis or the first-line treatment for a Thyroid Storm while the clock is ticking, you are already behind.

Treat the "open-book" nature as a safety net, not a primary strategy. You should have your references organized and searchable. Our review materials, including the PANRE/PANRE-LA Review Exam books, are designed to be concise and high-yield, allowing you to quickly verify a fact without getting lost in a 2,000-page textbook.

Strategy 3: Maximize Your CME Budget

The most efficient way to handle recertification is to combine your clinical education with your professional allowance. CME Review Courses offers a unique way to utilize your CME stipend. You can add an Amazon or Apple Gift Card ($100 to $1500) to your purchase of the PANRE Review or Pharmacology Course.

For many clinicians, June 30 is the real deadline that drives action. If your employer-sponsored CME money expires at the end of the fiscal or allowance period, waiting until July can mean losing available funds and delaying both your CME credit acquisition and your PANRE-LA prep. If you know you need a structured review course, it is more efficient to use that budget before June 30 and turn the purchase into immediate progress on recertification prep.

This allows you to secure the high-quality review content needed to pass the PANRE-LA while also obtaining a gift card to purchase additional medical equipment, reference tablets, or other educational tools. Our Pharmacology Course also offers Category 1 AAPA credit, which is useful for clinicians managing annual CME requirements while preparing for the longitudinal assessment. The PANRE Review Course remains the course that provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit, making it a strong option if your goal is to address the June 30 CME deadline and PANRE-LA preparation in one purchase.

Strategy 4: Focused Clinical System Review

The PANRE-LA weights different organ systems according to the NCCPA Blueprint. Prioritize Cardiology, Pulmonology, GI, and Musculoskeletal systems.

• Cardiology: Focus on EKG interpretation, HTN guidelines, and ACS management.
• Pulmonology: Master the differences between Asthma/COPD and the management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia.
• Internal Medicine: Our content is written by PAs for PAs, ensuring that the level of detail is appropriate for the clinical scenarios you will face in the PANRE-LA.

Strategy 5: Clinical Vignette Practice

The best way to prepare for a 25-question quarter is to practice with clinical vignettes that mirror the exam format. You should practice under timed conditions to get used to the 5-minute limit.

Clinical Practice Scenario 1: Cardiology

Your patient is a 64-year-old male presenting with a two-hour history of substernal chest pain that radiates to his left jaw. He appears diaphoretic. His vitals are HR 110, BP 145/92, SaO2 96% on room air. An EKG is performed and shows 3mm ST-segment elevation in leads V2, V3, and V4.

What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A) Obtain a Stat Chest X-ray
B) Administer 325mg of Aspirin and activate the Cardiac Cath Lab
C) Order Cardiac Enzymes and wait for results before treatment
D) Start an IV Heparin drip and admit to the ICU

Explanation:
The correct answer is B) Administer 325mg of Aspirin and activate the Cardiac Cath Lab. The patient is presenting with a clear ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI) involving the anterior wall. Time is myocardium. Aspirin should be given immediately to inhibit further platelet aggregation, and the patient needs emergent reperfusion therapy (PCI). Waiting for cardiac enzymes (C) is contraindicated in the presence of clear EKG changes. A chest X-ray (A) may be part of the workup but should not delay the trip to the cath lab. Heparin (D) is an adjunct but not the definitive next step for reperfusion.

Clinical Practice Scenario 2: Orthopedics

Your patient is a 22-year-old female athlete who felt a "pop" in her right knee after a sudden change of direction during a soccer match. She experienced immediate swelling and a sensation of the knee "giving out." On examination, she has a positive Lachman test.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Medial Meniscus Tear
B) Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL) Sprain
C) Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) Rupture
D) Patellar Tendon Rupture

Explanation:
The correct answer is C) Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) Rupture. The mechanism of injury (non-contact deceleration or change in direction), the audible "pop," immediate swelling (hemarthrosis), and the positive Lachman test: which is the most sensitive physical exam maneuver for ACL stability: all point to an ACL tear. Meniscal tears (A) typically have a more delayed swelling and present with locking or catching. MCL injuries (B) result from a valgus stress. Patellar tendon ruptures (D) present with an inability to extend the knee and a high-riding patella.

Clinical Practice Scenario 3: Dermatology

Your patient is a 45-year-old male with a history of obesity who presents with a warm, erythematous, and poorly demarcated area of skin on his right lower leg. The area is tender to palpation. He has a low-grade fever of 100.2°F. There is no evidence of fluctuance or purulent drainage.

What is the most appropriate pharmacological treatment for this patient?
A) Oral Cephalexin
B) Topical Mupirocin
C) Incision and Drainage (I&D)
D) Intravenous Vancomycin

Explanation:
The correct answer is A) Oral Cephalexin. The presentation is classic for non-purulent cellulitis, most commonly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. First-generation cephalosporins like Cephalexin are appropriate first-line oral treatments. Topical Mupirocin (B) is used for impetigo, not spreading cellulitis. I&D (C) is the treatment of choice for an abscess (purulent, fluctuant mass), which is not present here. IV Vancomycin (D) is reserved for severe infections, MRSA suspicion, or failed outpatient therapy; this patient is stable enough for oral treatment.

Conclusion: Reducing the PANRE-LA Friction

Mastering the PANRE-LA without stress comes down to preparation and resource management. By securing 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit through a comprehensive PANRE Review Course, you ensure that your knowledge base is current. By utilizing the Amazon or Apple Gift Card add-ons, you make your CME budget work harder for you.

If you still have CME money available, June 30 should be treated as a hard planning deadline. It is an opportunity to secure credit, use available funds efficiently, and put a structured PANRE-LA study system in place before you fall behind.

Don't wait until the last quarter to realize you are behind on your scoring. Don't wait until after June 30 to find out your CME budget window closed. Start with a solid foundation, use clinical vignettes to sharpen your diagnostic skills, and treat each 25-question quarter as a routine clinical task rather than a major exam.

Navigating the transition of Continuing Medical Education (CME) requirements in 2026 requires a shift in how physician assistants (PAs) and nurse practitioners (NPs) allocate their professional development funds. With the 2026 ACCME rule changes effectively prohibiting the bundling of personal gift cards with accredited CME purchases, the focus has returned to the core value of the content: clinical utility and efficient credit acquisition.

Maximizing a CME stipend now necessitates a strategic approach to selecting high-yield resources that provide the necessary certification hours while strengthening clinical decision-making.

Essential Course Logistics

For clinicians preparing for the NCCPA PANRE or seeking a comprehensive clinical update, the following logistical details apply to the primary review package:

• Course Title: PANRE Review Course
• Price: $399.99
• Deliverables: 1,672 Board-Style Questions
• Credit Hours: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit
• Access Duration: 30 Months
• Specialty Content: Includes Emergency Medicine, Family Medicine, Internal Medicine, Orthopedics, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Neurology, Cardiology, and OB/GYN.

The 2026 ACCME Regulatory Landscape

As of early 2026, the ACCME has implemented strict prohibitions against providing personal remuneration: such as Amazon or Apple gift cards: directly tied to the purchase of accredited CME. This policy applies regardless of the source of payment, including employer-provided stipends. While the "CME-plus-gift-card" model as a form of personal rebate has been phased out for accredited providers, the mandate for high-quality, professional training remains unchanged.

Clinicians must now evaluate CME based on the return on investment (ROI) regarding credit density and clinical relevance. A course offering 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit for a single purchase remains the most efficient way to fulfill biennial or five-year cycle requirements using a standard employer stipend.

Efficient Credit Accumulation for PAs and NPs

The primary objective for most PAs is meeting the NCCPA requirement for Category 1 CME. Our PANRE Review Course is specifically designed by PAs for PAs, ensuring that the depth of the material matches the reality of clinical practice and board examinations.

For Nurse Practitioners, it is essential to verify state-specific regulations regarding AAPA Category 1 credit. While many states accept AAPA credit for NP recertification, these requirements vary. Physicians can also utilize these packages for Category 2 CME credit, providing a structured review of multi-system disease states.

Clinical Assessment: Cardiovascular and Internal Medicine

A core component of any board review is the mastery of cardiovascular diagnostics.

Clinical Scenario 1

Your patient is a 64-year-old male with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia who presents to the emergency department with a four-hour history of "tightness" in his chest. He appears diaphoretic. His vital signs are: HR 102 bpm, BP 148/92 mmHg, SaO2 96% on room air. An EKG is performed immediately.

The EKG shows 2mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, with reciprocal ST depression in leads I and aVL.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Perform a right-sided EKG (V4R)
B. Administer a 500mL normal saline bolus
C. Initiate intravenous Beta-blocker therapy
D. Administer sublingual Nitroglycerin

Correct Answer: A. Perform a right-sided EKG (V4R)

Explanation: The patient is presenting with an inferior wall ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). In the setting of an inferior MI, involvement of the right ventricle occurs in approximately 40% of cases. Before administering medications that reduce preload, such as Nitroglycerin or Morphine, it is critical to evaluate for right ventricular (RV) involvement using a right-sided EKG. Nitroglycerin (D) is contraindicated in patients with RV infarction as they are preload-dependent; its use can cause profound hypotension. Saline boluses (B) are used to treat hypotension in RV MIs, but the diagnostic step of the right-sided EKG must come first. Beta-blockers (C) are generally avoided in the acute phase of an MI if there are signs of heart failure or risk factors for cardiogenic shock.

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Optimizing Stipend Use: Beyond the Basics

When gift card add-ons are no longer the primary driver, PAs and NPs should look for courses that offer long-term access. Our 30-month access ensures that you can review materials throughout your entire certification cycle, rather than just in the weeks leading up to an exam. This longevity provides a higher value-per-dollar than one-time live conferences that require travel and lodging expenses.

Clinical Scenario 2

Your patient is a 28-year-old female who presents for a follow-up regarding a recently diagnosed thyroid nodule. A fine-needle aspiration (FNA) was performed, and the pathology report indicates "Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma." Her physical exam reveals a 1.5 cm firm nodule in the right lobe of the thyroid and no palpable cervical lymphadenopathy. TSH and free T4 levels are within normal limits.

What is the recommended initial surgical intervention for this patient?

A. Radioactive iodine ablation only
B. Total thyroidectomy or lobectomy
C. External beam radiation
D. Observation with serial ultrasounds

Correct Answer: B. Total thyroidectomy or lobectomy

Explanation: The standard of care for biopsy-confirmed papillary thyroid carcinoma is surgical resection. Depending on the size of the tumor and the presence of risk factors, either a total thyroidectomy or a thyroid lobectomy is appropriate. Radioactive iodine ablation (A) is an adjunctive therapy used post-surgically in certain cases to destroy remnant thyroid tissue but is not the primary treatment. Radiation (C) is not typically used for localized papillary thyroid cancer. Observation (D) is inappropriate for a confirmed malignancy.

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Clinical Specialty Focus: Pharmacology and Specialty Credits

In addition to the 100-hour PANRE Review, we offer Category 1 AAPA Credit in Pharmacology. This is a critical area for NPs who often have specific pharmacology credit requirements for state licensure. By selecting a course that covers the NCCPA Blueprint across multiple domains: including Dermatology, Orthopedics, and Psychiatry: you ensure that your stipend covers all necessary clinical bases.

Clinical Scenario 3

Your patient is a 45-year-old male presenting with acute onset of severe pain, redness, and swelling in his left first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. He reports the pain began suddenly last night. His medical history includes hypertension, for which he recently started a new medication. Joint aspiration reveals negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals.

Which of the following medications most likely contributed to this patient's acute presentation?

A. Losartan
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Atorvastatin
D. Lisinopril

Correct Answer: B. Hydrochlorothiazide

Explanation: The patient is experiencing an acute gout flare, confirmed by the presence of negatively birefringent crystals. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) is a thiazide diuretic known to increase serum uric acid levels by increasing urate reabsorption in the proximal tubule, thereby triggering gout flares. Losartan (A) actually has uricosuric properties and can lower uric acid levels. Atorvastatin (C) and Lisinopril (D) do not significantly impact uric acid metabolism.

Conclusion: Making the Most of Your 2026 CME Funds

The 2026 landscape for CME is about efficiency and clinical excellence. For the PA or NP with a set stipend, the goal is to secure the highest volume of Category 1 credit and the most comprehensive clinical review for a single price point. Our PANRE Review Course provides a direct, no-nonsense path to meeting certification requirements while equipping you with the knowledge necessary for the bedside.

Use your 2026 stipend to invest in your clinical practice. With 1,672 questions and 30 months of access, you can ensure that your educational needs are met well into the next decade.

Pharmacology remains one of the most challenging and high-stakes components of clinical practice and board certification. For Physician Assistants (PAs) managing complex patient populations, staying current on drug interactions, mechanisms of action, and new therapeutic guidelines is a professional necessity. Our Pharmacology CME Review Course has become the preferred choice for PAs seeking high-yield clinical content paired with unparalleled convenience.

Logistical Details:

• Price: Starting at $399.99
• Duration of Access: 30 Months
• Deliverables: 120 Pharmacology Practice Questions
• Credits: 12 AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME Credits

The Demand for High-Quality Pharmacology CME

The modern clinical environment requires PAs to be experts in polypharmacy and medication management. Our course was designed by physician assistants for physician assistants to address this specific need. Unlike generic CME, this curriculum focuses on the clinical application of pharmacological principles in primary care, emergency medicine, and internal medicine.

AAPA Category 1 Credit and NCCPA Weighting

A significant reason for the popularity of this course is the credit structure. This course provides 12 AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME credits. For PAs maintaining NCCPA certification, self-assessment credits are particularly valuable because the NCCPA applies an additional 50% weighting to these credits. This means your 12 hours of effort effectively count for 18 hours when logged for certification maintenance.

Another major reason PAs are choosing this course right now is the June 30th deadline many are working against for license renewal, employer CME cutoff dates, and mid-year compliance tracking. If you need pharmacology CME completed before the end of June, a focused self-assessment course with immediate educational value is a practical option.

While our PANRE Review Course provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit, the Pharmacology course is specifically tailored to meet prescriptive authority requirements that many states mandate for license renewal.

Unmatched Convenience: CME with Gift Card Add-Ons

We recognize that PAs are busy professionals who need to maximize the value of their CME stipend. To support further educational enrichment, we offer CME with Amazon and Apple Gift Card add-ons.

Purchasers can choose to add a gift card ranging from $100 to $1500 to their purchase. This allows you to secure your required credits while also obtaining the funds needed for additional medical equipment, textbooks, or technology to enhance your practice. This "one-stop-shop" approach simplifies the procurement process and ensures you are making the most efficient use of your annual CME budget.

Clinical Application and Content Breadth

The content is not just a list of drug classes. It covers essential topics across:

• Emergency Medicine
• Family Medicine
• Internal Medicine
• Orthopedics
• Dermatology
• Psychiatry
• Neurology
• Cardiology
• OB/GYN

This breadth ensures that regardless of your specialty, the pharmacology principles discussed are relevant to your daily patient interactions. For those preparing for the NCCPA exams, this content aligns with the expectations found in the NCCPA Blueprint.

Clinical Vignette: Pharmacology Practice Question

Your patient is a 64-year-old male with a history of chronic heart failure (HFrEF, EF 30%) and chronic kidney disease (Stage 3). He is currently taking Lisinopril 20mg daily, Carvedilol 12.5mg BID, and Furosemide 40mg daily. He presents for a follow-up with a stable blood pressure of 128/78 mmHg and a heart rate of 62 bpm. His laboratory results today show a serum potassium of 4.8 mEq/L and a Creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL (Baseline 1.5 mg/dL). According to the current heart failure guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his pharmacological management to reduce mortality?

A) Increase Carvedilol to 25mg BID
B) Add Spironolactone 12.5mg daily
C) Switch Lisinopril to Sacubitril/Valsartan
D) Add Amlodipine 5mg daily

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Correct Answer: C) Switch Lisinopril to Sacubitril/Valsartan

Switching to an Angiotensin Receptor-Neprilysin Inhibitor (ARNI) like Sacubitril/Valsartan is the correct choice. Current clinical guidelines for HFrEF recommend replacing an ACE inhibitor or ARB with an ARNI in symptomatic patients to further reduce morbidity and mortality. The patient’s blood pressure and potassium levels are within a range that allows for this transition, provided a 36-hour washout period is observed if switching from an ACE inhibitor.

• A) Increase Carvedilol: While titrating beta-blockers to the maximum tolerated dose is important, his heart rate is already 62 bpm, suggesting limited room for further titration without causing bradycardia.
• B) Add Spironolactone: Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (MRAs) also reduce mortality; however, switching to an ARNI is generally prioritized in stable patients already on an ACEi/ARB before adding further diuretics, especially with CKD concerns, though both are viable steps.
• D) Add Amlodipine: Calcium channel blockers like amlodipine do not provide the same mortality benefit in HFrEF as ARNIs and are not first-line for this purpose.

Secure Your Credits Today

Whether you are preparing for the PANRE, fulfilling state pharmacology requirements, or simply aiming to sharpen your clinical knowledge, our courses provide the quality you need with the convenience you want.

Join the thousands of PAs, NPs, and physicians who have utilized our CME Review Courses to advance their education. Secure your 12 hours of Pharmacology Category 1 Self-Assessment credit or your 100 hours of PANRE Review credit today.

Preparing for the Emergency Medicine (EM) End of Rotation (EOR) exam requires a strategy that balances high-yield content review with active question practice. The Emergency Medicine EOR Review app, developed by Jeremy Boroff, PA-C, provides a streamlined, mobile-first solution for PA students navigating the demands of a busy clinical rotation. This app is designed to align with the core topics frequently tested on the EM EOR and PANCE.

Logistics and Deliverables:

• Price: $9.99 (One-time purchase)
• Platform: iOS (iPhone and iPad)
• Content: 120 Board-style practice questions
• Educational Materials: 13 Video lessons and a 12-chapter high-yield reading library
• Access: Permanent access with no recurring subscription fees

You can download the app directly from the Apple App Store here: Emergency Medicine EOR Review.

A Distraction-Free Study Experience

The primary challenge of clinical rotations is finding dedicated time for pance prep courses and EOR study. The Emergency Medicine EOR Review app addresses this with a distraction-free design. Unlike many web-based platforms that are cluttered with ads or complex navigation, this app focuses entirely on the medical content. The interface is clean, allowing you to move quickly between the practice exam, the video library, and the high-yield reading chapters.

Core Features: Practice, Video, and Reading

The app is structured into three primary pillars to ensure comprehensive preparation:

120-Question Practice Examination

The practice exam features 120 board-style multiple-choice questions. These questions are randomized in both order and answer choices every time you start a new session. This prevents rote memorization of patterns and forces you to rely on clinical reasoning. As you progress, the app provides live score tracking and a tally of your performance, concluding with a detailed summary.

High-Yield Reading Library

Organized into 12 chapters by organ system, the reading library covers the essential topics found on the NCCPA Blueprint. Whether you are reviewing Cardiovascular emergencies, Pulmonology, or Orthopedics, the content is condensed into readable sections ideal for quick reference between patient encounters in the ED.

Concise Video Lessons

The 13 video lessons are categorized by system: including neurologic, gastrointestinal, renal, endocrine, and dermatologic: to provide a visual and auditory review of complex topics. These lessons emphasize the "must-know" information for the exam without unnecessary filler.

Clinical Scenarios and Practice Questions

To succeed on the EM EOR, you must be able to identify the "best next step" in an acute setting. Use the following clinical vignettes to test your knowledge.

Question 1

Your patient is a 58-year-old male with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. He presents to the ED with crushing substernal chest pain radiating to his left arm, accompanied by diaphoresis and nausea for 45 minutes. His vitals are: BP 150/90, HR 96, RR 18, and O2 sat 98% on room air. An ECG is performed and shows 2 mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.

What is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Obtain a stat chest X-ray
B. Activate the cardiac catheterization lab for emergent PCI
C. Administer IV thrombolytics
D. Order a serum troponin level

Answer: B. Activate the cardiac catheterization lab for emergent PCI.
Explanation: This patient is presenting with an inferior ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). The definitive treatment for STEMI is reperfusion therapy. Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is the preferred method if it can be performed within 90 minutes of medical contact. While aspirin and other adjunct treatments are necessary, activating the cath lab is the priority for life-saving intervention. Stat X-rays (Choice A) and lab results (Choice D) should not delay reperfusion in the setting of a clear STEMI. Thrombolytics (Choice C) are reserved for cases where PCI is not available within the recommended timeframe.

Question 2

Your patient is a 32-year-old female who presents with sudden onset pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. She underwent a laparoscopic appendectomy five days ago. Her vitals are: HR 118, RR 26, BP 122/76, and O2 sat 91% on room air. Her lung exam is clear to auscultation bilaterally.

What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the best initial imaging study?

A. Pneumonia; Chest X-ray
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax; Ultrasound (FAST)
C. Pulmonary embolism; CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA)
D. Myocardial infarction; ECG

Answer: C. Pulmonary embolism; CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA).
Explanation: The patient’s recent surgery, tachycardia, and sudden onset of pleuritic pain and hypoxia are highly suggestive of a pulmonary embolism (PE). In a hemodynamically stable patient, CTPA is the gold standard and best initial imaging study for diagnosis. Pneumonia (Choice A) is less likely given the sudden onset and clear lung exam. While pneumothorax (Choice B) is a differential, the surgical history points more strongly toward venous thromboembolism. Myocardial infarction (Choice D) is less common in this age group without significant risk factors.

Comprehensive CME and PANRE Solutions

For those who have moved beyond EOR exams and are preparing for recertification or looking to maximize their CME budget, we offer specialized courses tailored for the practicing clinician.

Our PANRE Review Course provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit, offering an efficient and thorough way to prepare for the NCCPA recertification exam. We also provide a dedicated Pharmacology CME Course which is also approved for Category 1 AAPA Credit.

To help you further enrich your professional resources, we offer CME with Gift Card packages. These allow you to add an Amazon or Apple Gift Card ($100 – $1500) to your purchase, effectively utilizing your employer-provided CME funds. This is a pragmatic way to get the high-quality Pharmacology CME Review you need while also securing the tools necessary for your practice.

Whether you are a student using the Emergency Medicine EOR Review app or a seasoned PA-C taking our PANRE prep courses, our content is written by PAs, for PAs, ensuring clinical relevance and educational efficiency.

Managing professional development funds requires a strategic approach to ensure both clinical competency and fiscal efficiency. For physician assistants and healthcare providers, the annual Continuing Medical Education (CME) stipend is a finite resource that often expires on a fixed deadline. With June 30 approaching, this is the point in the budget cycle when many PAs need to decide whether to use remaining CME funds now or lose them. CME Review Courses offers a streamlined solution to optimize these funds through our premium packages featuring Amazon and Apple gift card add-ons.

By selecting a high-value add-on, such as the $1,500 gift card, you can use remaining CME funds before the June 30 deadline while securing both high-yield educational content and practical resources for ongoing learning, such as updated medical hardware or clinical reference materials.

Logistical Overview:

• Base Price: $399.99
• Gift Card Options: $100 to $1,500 (Amazon or Apple)
• Access Duration: 30 Months
• Deliverables: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 CME (PANRE Course)
• Target Audience: Physician Assistants, Nurse Practitioners, Physicians

Strategic Value of the $1500 Add-On

The primary advantage of the $1,500 gift card add-on is the ability to maximize the utility of your employer-provided CME stipend before the June 30 deadline. Many employers provide an annual allowance on a use-it-or-lose-it basis, which makes late June the most practical time to deploy any remaining balance. By adding a gift card to your PANRE Review Course, you can convert expiring CME dollars into both high-level clinical education and tangible assets.

Choosing an Apple gift card allows for the purchase of updated hardware, such as an iPad Pro for reviewing clinical images or a MacBook for hospitalist documentation. Alternatively, an Amazon gift card provides access to medical textbooks, diagnostic tools, office equipment, and other professional resources. The immediate value is not just the add-on itself. It is the ability to act before June 30, preserve the full value of your CME allocation, and extend that value beyond the course content.

High-Yield Content for PANRE and Recertification

The PANRE Review Course is specifically designed to meet the rigorous standards of the NCCPA Blueprint. While the course provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 CME credit, the focus is on clinical efficiency. The material is authored by experienced physician assistants for physician assistants, ensuring that the clinical vignettes and diagnostic criteria are relevant to real-world practice.

Key benefits of the PANRE Review include:

• Efficiency: Streamlined modules that focus on the most commonly tested topics on the NCCPA Blueprint.
• Longevity: 30 months of access ensures that you can review materials leading up to your exam date, regardless of when you purchase.
• Comprehensive Scope: Coverage of Emergency Medicine, Internal Medicine, Cardiology, OB/GYN, and more.

For those not in a recertification cycle, the Pharmacology Review Course offers focused Category 1 AAPA credit, which is often required for state licensure and specialized certification.

Specialized Clinical Packages

CME Review Courses provides specialized packages tailored to specific practice areas. These are available with the same gift card add-on options, allowing clinicians in various specialties to find value.

Internal Medicine and Hospitalist Care

The Internal Medicine Hospitalist CME Package addresses the complexities of inpatient management. From electrolyte imbalances to acute respiratory failure, the content is geared toward the high-acuity environment of the hospital. While physicians can claim Category 2 credit for these hours, PAs and some NPs (depending on state regulations) can claim Category 1 AAPA credit.

Emergency Medicine

The Emergency Medicine CME Package is designed for providers in the ER and Urgent Care settings. It focuses on rapid stabilization, diagnostic reasoning, and procedural considerations.

Educational Assessment: Practice Questions

To demonstrate the clinical depth of our courses, review the following vignettes. These are representative of the question style found in the PANRE/PANRE LA Review Exams.

Clinical Vignette 1: Cardiology

Your patient is a 64-year-old male presenting with a two-hour history of substernal chest pressure radiating to the left jaw. He has a history of hypertension and tobacco use. Vital signs show a BP of 152/94 mmHg, HR of 88 bpm, and SaO2 of 97% on room air. The initial EKG reveals 2mm ST-segment elevation in leads V2, V3, and V4.

What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Exercise stress test
B) Immediate activation of the cardiac catheterization lab
C) Measurement of serial troponins and observation in the ED
D) Administration of oral beta-blockers

Correct Answer: B) Immediate activation of the cardiac catheterization lab.
The patient is presenting with a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) involving the anterior wall (V2-V4). The gold standard treatment for STEMI is primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) within 90 minutes of medical contact. Stress testing (A) is contraindicated in acute MI. Serial troponins (C) are useful in NSTEMI but should not delay reperfusion therapy in the setting of ST elevation. While beta-blockers (D) are part of long-term management, they are not the immediate priority over reperfusion.

Clinical Vignette 2: Dermatology

Your patient is a 28-year-old female who presents with a pruritic, erythematous rash on her flexor surfaces, specifically the antecubital and popliteal fossae. She reports a childhood history of "bad allergies" and asthma. Physical exam reveals lichenification and excoriations in the affected areas.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Psoriasis
B) Atopic dermatitis
C) Contact dermatitis
D) Tinea corporis

Correct Answer: B) Atopic dermatitis.
The clinical presentation of pruritic lesions on flexor surfaces in a patient with a history of asthma or allergies (the "atopic triad") is classic for atopic dermatitis. Psoriasis (A) typically presents on extensor surfaces with silvery scales. Contact dermatitis (C) would be localized to the area of allergen exposure. Tinea corporis (D) presents as annular lesions with central clearing and active borders.

Clinical Vignette 3: Emergency Medicine

Your patient is a 45-year-old male who was brought to the Emergency Department after being involved in a high-velocity motor vehicle collision (MVC). He was the restrained driver. He complains of severe abdominal pain. On exam, he has seatbelt sign bruising across his lower abdomen. Vital signs: HR 120 bpm, BP 90/60 mmHg, RR 24 bpm. A FAST exam (Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma) is performed and is positive for free fluid in the Morison's pouch.

What is the definitive management for this patient?
A) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast
B) Emergent exploratory laparotomy
C) Aggressive fluid resuscitation with 2L of normal saline
D) Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL)

Correct Answer: B) Emergent exploratory laparotomy.
This patient is hemodynamically unstable (hypotension, tachycardia) with a positive FAST exam following blunt abdominal trauma. In the setting of instability and evidence of hemoperitoneum, the patient requires immediate surgical intervention to control hemorrhage. A CT scan (A) is only appropriate for hemodynamically stable patients. Fluid resuscitation (C) should be initiated (ideally with blood products), but it is not the definitive management. DPL (D) is redundant when a FAST exam has already confirmed free fluid.

Conclusion

Maximizing your CME allowance requires a balance between acquiring high-quality clinical knowledge and obtaining the tools necessary for long-term professional success. With the June 30 deadline approaching, the main reason to act now is simple: unused CME funds may disappear. By utilizing the $1,500 gift card add-on with our CME Review Packages, you can preserve the value of your current CME budget while extending it into practical educational resources. Whether you are preparing for the PANRE, fulfilling pharmacology requirements, or seeking focused review content, CME Review Courses provides the educational value and add-on flexibility that make late-June CME spending more efficient.

Explore our full range of courses and gift card options now to maximize your 2026 CME funds before June 30.

Preparing for the Emergency Medicine End of Rotation (EOR) exam requires a shift in mindset from standard clinical rotations. The pace of the emergency department is fast, and the exam reflects that urgency with high-yield clinical vignettes and "next best step" decision-making. To succeed, you need more than just a list of topics; you need a dedicated simulation of the exam environment.

The Emergency Medicine EOR Review app is designed to provide that exact simulation. Available now on the iOS App Store, this tool streamlines your study process by focusing on the core deliverables required for a passing score.

Price: $9.99
Access: Lifetime on iPhone and iPad
Deliverables: 120 board-style questions, 13 video lessons, 12-chapter high-yield review library

You can download the app directly here: Emergency Medicine EOR Review on the App Store.

The Power of the 120-Question Practice Exam

The PAEA Emergency Medicine blueprint is expansive, covering everything from acute coronary syndrome to multi-system trauma. Many students rely on a general internal medicine eor study guide for their early rotations, but EM requires a more focused approach on stabilization and disposition.

The centerpiece of this app is a full 120-question practice exam. This length is intentional, mirroring the standard EOR format. By working through a full set of questions, you build the mental stamina needed for the actual test day. You aren't just testing your knowledge of a single organ system; you are training your brain to pivot from a pediatric orthopedic injury to a geriatric stroke presentation in seconds.

Randomized Questions and Active Learning

A common pitfall in EOR prep is "pattern recognition fatigue," where you begin to memorize the order of questions in a static PDF or book rather than the medical concepts.

The Emergency Medicine EOR Review app solves this by randomizing both the question order and the answer choices every time you start a session. This ensures that every study block feels fresh. You are forced to evaluate the clinical data presented in the vignette rather than relying on muscle memory. This randomized approach is essential for true mastery of the material, moving you beyond simple recognition and into active clinical reasoning.

Instant Explanations for Clinical Reasoning

In the emergency department, feedback is often immediate. Your study tool should function the same way. This app provides instant explanations for every question. When you select an answer, you immediately see why the correct choice is the gold standard and why the distractors are less appropriate in the given context.

These explanations are written by physician assistants for physician assistants. They skip the fluff and focus on the "why": the diagnostic pearls, the first-line pharmacotherapy, and the critical "can't-miss" diagnoses that the EOR frequently tests.

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Clinical Vignette: Acute Assessment

To demonstrate the level of detail provided in the Emergency Medicine EOR Review app, consider the following clinical scenario.

Patient Demographics: Your patient is a 64-year-old male with a history of hypertension and tobacco use.
Symptoms: He presents to the emergency department with sudden onset "tearing" chest pain that radiates to his back between the scapulae. He appears diaphoretic and distressed.
Vital Signs:

• HR: 115 bpm
• BP: 185/110 mmHg (Right Arm), 160/95 mmHg (Left Arm)
• SaO2: 96% on room air
• RR: 22 breaths/min

Question: Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study to confirm the suspected diagnosis in this stable patient?

A. Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE)
B. Chest X-ray (CXR)
C. CT Angiography of the chest and abdomen
D. Electrocardiogram (ECG)

Correct Answer: C. CT Angiography of the chest and abdomen

Explanation: The clinical presentation of sudden, tearing chest pain radiating to the back, combined with a significant blood pressure discrepancy between arms, is highly suggestive of an aortic dissection. In a hemodynamically stable patient, CT Angiography is the gold standard for confirmation due to its high sensitivity and specificity, as well as its ability to delineate the extent of the dissection (Stanford Type A vs. Type B).

• Choice A (TEE) is highly accurate and preferred in unstable patients who cannot be moved to the CT suite, but CTA remains the primary choice for stable patients.
• Choice B (CXR) may show a widened mediastinum in 60-90% of cases but is not sensitive enough to rule out the condition.
• Choice D (ECG) should be performed to rule out a concomitant MI, but it will not confirm the diagnosis of aortic dissection.

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Beyond the App: Comprehensive Review Options

While the Emergency Medicine EOR Review app is an essential tool for students, CME Review Courses offers a full suite of resources for the practicing PA. If you have already graduated and are looking toward your recertification, our PANRE Review Course is the industry standard.

The PANRE Review provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit, which is a significant portion of your required CME cycle. For those who need to maximize their educational budget, we offer CME with Amazon Gift Card or CME with Apple Gift Card add-ons. These packages allow you to add $100 to $1,500 to your purchase, helping you fund the technology you need for your practice while earning your required credits.

For those focusing specifically on pharmacological management, our Pharmacology CME Review offers Category 1 AAPA credit and is designed to provide high-yield updates on the latest prescribing guidelines.

Why This App is Different

Many students try to use a generic internal medicine eor study guide or broad question banks to pass their EM rotation. However, the Emergency Medicine EOR is unique because of its focus on "undifferentiated" patients. You aren't told the diagnosis; you are given a chief complaint and vital signs.

The Emergency Medicine EOR Review app bridges that gap. In addition to the practice exam, the app includes:

• 13 Video Lessons: Organized by organ system (Cardiovascular, Pulm, Neuro, GI, etc.) to reinforce visual and auditory learning.
• High-Yield Reading Library: 12 chapters of structured content that follow the NCCPA and PAEA blueprint topics.
• Progress Tracking: A live score tally keeps you updated on your performance throughout the exam.

Summary of Deliverables

For $9.99, you gain a mobile-ready study companion that you can use between seeing patients on rotation. There are no subscriptions and no hidden fees: just a direct, efficient path to passing your EOR.

• 120 Questions: Board-style clinical vignettes.
• Instant Feedback: Full rationales for every answer.
• Blueprint Aligned: Content mapped to the PAEA Emergency Medicine topics.
• Multi-Platform: Designed for seamless use on iPhone and iPad.

Success on the EM EOR is about more than just knowledge; it’s about application. Start practicing with the right tools today.

Download the Emergency Medicine EOR Review App Here