
Price: $325.00 – $1,825.00
Duration: 1-Year Access
Deliverables: 100 Category 1 AAPA CME Credits, hundreds of practice questions, and optional Amazon or Apple gift card add-ons.
The landscape of Physician Assistant (PA) practice is shifting rapidly with the operationalization of the PA Licensure Compact. As of early 2026, 23 states have enacted legislation to join the compact, a move designed to reduce the administrative burden of multi-state licensure. However, the compact does not replace the requirement for ongoing professional development. To utilize compact privileges once they are fully active, PAs must maintain an active license in their home state and keep their National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants (NCCPA) certification current. This necessitates a consistent and high-quality source of AAPA Category 1 Credit.
At CME Review Courses, we provide the tools necessary to satisfy these requirements efficiently. Our PANRE Review Course is specifically designed to offer 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit, providing a comprehensive solution for those preparing for the NCCPA January 2025 standards or the PANRE-LA.
Understanding the PA Compact and Your State Requirements
The PA Compact allows PAs to practice in multiple member states without obtaining individual licenses for each. This is a significant benefit for those in locum tenens, telemedicine, or practice near state borders. As of March 2026, the following 23 states are members: Alabama, Arizona, Arkansas, Colorado, Connecticut, Delaware, Iowa, Kansas, Maine, Minnesota, Montana, Nebraska, New Jersey, North Carolina, North Dakota, Ohio, Oklahoma, South Dakota, Tennessee, Utah, Virginia, Washington, West Virginia, and Wisconsin.
While the compact simplifies the legal ability to practice, the educational responsibility remains the same. You must continue to earn and report CME to the NCCPA. For PAs in the compact, keeping a robust record of AAPA Category 1 Credit is non-negotiable. Our courses ensure that regardless of how many states you practice in, your core certification requirements are met.
High-Yield CME with Added Value
Many PAs find that their employer-provided CME budgets are underutilized or difficult to manage. We offer an efficient way to use your CME money by integrating Amazon and Apple gift card add-ons with our packages. You can add between $100 and $1,500 to your purchase, allowing you to acquire the technology or resources you need to further enrich your clinical education while fulfilling your credit requirements.
While our content was written by physician assistants for physician assistants, it provides significant value across the clinical spectrum.
- Nurse Practitioners: In many states, Category 1 AAPA Credit counts toward the credit requirements for nurse practitioner license renewal.
- Physicians: While our programs do not count for Category 1 CME for physicians, they are highly valued as Category 2 CME. Internal Medicine Physicians, in particular, are frequent buyers of our programs for their clinical depth in areas like Cardiology, Emergency Medicine, and Orthopedics.
Explore our CME with Gift Card Packages here.

Focused Clinical Content Areas
To maintain compliance and clinical excellence across compact states, you need a review that covers the breadth of the NCCPA Blueprint. Our content is organized into specific modules to help you focus on your weakest areas or reinforce your strengths:
- Cardiology: Mastery of EKGs and heart failure management.
- Emergency Medicine: Acute stabilization and life-threatening pathology.
- Internal Medicine/Hospitalist: Comprehensive inpatient care strategies.
- Dermatology & Orthopedics: Visual diagnosis and musculoskeletal intervention.
Our Cardiovascular Review and Pulmonary Review modules are top-rated for their clinical utility.
Clinical Assessment: Cardiovascular System
As a professional clinical writer, I prioritize information delivery. The following section contains practice questions from our PANRE Review Exam 3 to test your knowledge of the cardiovascular system.
Q1 [Cardiovascular System]
Your patient is a 62-year-old man with a history of hypertension and diabetes who presents to the emergency department with acute-onset tearing chest pain radiating to his back. His blood pressure is 210/120 mmHg in his right arm and 170/100 mmHg in his left arm. A CT angiogram reveals an intimal flap in the ascending aorta. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Initiate IV nitroprusside for blood pressure control
B. Emergent surgical repair
C. Start IV heparin and arrange for cardiac catheterization
D. Administer IV labetalol and observe in the ICU
E. Place an intra-aortic balloon pump
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Emergent surgical repair. A Stanford Type A aortic dissection (involving the ascending aorta) requires emergent surgical repair due to high mortality risk from complications such as tamponade, aortic rupture, or coronary malperfusion. Option A (nitroprusside alone) is incorrect because nitroprusside without a beta-blocker can cause reflex tachycardia and increased aortic shear stress, worsening the dissection. Option C (heparin and catheterization) is incorrect because anticoagulation is contraindicated in aortic dissection and catheterization delays definitive treatment. Option D (labetalol and observation) would be appropriate for a Type B dissection (descending aorta only) but is insufficient for Type A, which mandates surgery. Option E (intra-aortic balloon pump) is absolutely contraindicated in aortic dissection because it could worsen the dissection or cause rupture.


Q2 [Cardiovascular System]
Your patient is a 45-year-old woman who presents with progressive dyspnea, fatigue, and lower extremity edema over 6 months. She has no significant cardiac history. Echocardiography reveals four-chamber dilation with an ejection fraction of 20% and global hypokinesis. There is no significant valvular disease. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
C. Dilated cardiomyopathy
D. Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
E. Constrictive pericarditis
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Dilated cardiomyopathy. Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and systolic dysfunction with global hypokinesis, consistent with this patient's echocardiographic findings and clinical presentation of progressive heart failure. Option A (hypertrophic cardiomyopathy) is incorrect because HCM features asymmetric septal hypertrophy and preserved or hyperdynamic systolic function, not dilation with reduced EF. Option B (restrictive cardiomyopathy) is incorrect because it presents with diastolic dysfunction, normal or near-normal systolic function, and non-dilated ventricles with bilateral atrial enlargement. Option D (Takotsubo cardiomyopathy) is incorrect because it presents acutely (often after emotional stress), with apical ballooning rather than global hypokinesis, and typically recovers within weeks. Option E (constrictive pericarditis) is incorrect because it causes diastolic dysfunction from a thickened pericardium, not ventricular dilation with reduced EF.


Q3 [Cardiovascular System]
Your patient is a 78-year-old man with a history of chronic atrial fibrillation who presents with a syncopal episode. His ECG shows a ventricular rate of 32 bpm with no discernible P waves and a wide QRS complex with a regular R-R interval. Which of the following best explains this patient's presentation?
A. Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response
B. Complete (third-degree) AV block with a ventricular escape rhythm
C. Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) second-degree AV block
D. Sinus bradycardia with first-degree AV block
E. Atrial flutter with 4:1 conduction
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Complete (third-degree) AV block with a ventricular escape rhythm. The combination of a very slow, regular ventricular rate (32 bpm) with a wide QRS complex in a patient with known atrial fibrillation suggests complete AV block with a ventricular escape rhythm; the regularity indicates the ventricles are firing independently from an idioventricular pacemaker. Option A is incorrect because atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response would produce a fast, irregularly irregular rhythm, not a slow regular one. Option C (Mobitz type I) is incorrect because Wenckebach produces a grouped beating pattern with progressive PR prolongation and is typically associated with a narrow QRS, not a fixed slow rate with wide QRS. Option D (sinus bradycardia with first-degree AV block) is incorrect because P waves would be present before each QRS and the rhythm would originate from the sinus node. Option E (atrial flutter with 4:1 conduction) is incorrect because flutter waves would be visible, and a 4:1 block at a typical flutter rate of 300 bpm would yield a rate of approximately 75 bpm, not 32 bpm.
Secure Your Certification Maintenance
The transition to a multi-state practice model through the PA Compact underscores the necessity of high-quality, portable CME. Whether you are renewing your primary state license or preparing for your next NCCPA recertification cycle, our courses provide the authoritative knowledge required for modern clinical practice.
Logistical Summary for the PANRE Review Course:
- Price: $325.00 (Standard)
- Credits: 100 Category 1 AAPA CME Credits
- Access: Full digital curriculum for 365 days
- Bonus: Thousands of practice questions aligned with the NCCPA Blueprint.
Ensure your credits are current across all 23+ states. View our full course catalog here.








































