Price: $399.99 (Base Package)
Access: 30 Months
Deliverables: 100 Hours of Category 1 AAPA CME Credit
Course Title: PANRE Review Course
Mastering Family Medicine is the cornerstone of passing the Physician Assistant National Recertification Exam (PANRE). Because the NCCPA Blueprint for the PANRE is heavily weighted toward primary care, your success depends on a deep understanding of cardiology, pulmonology, and endocrinology: the "Big Three" of family practice.
Our panre review course is designed specifically to help you navigate these high-yield topics while providing an efficient way to utilize your employer-provided CME funds. By choosing a package that includes cme gift cards, you can maximize the value of your education budget.
Maximizing Your CME Budget with Gift Card Add-Ons
One of the most frequent questions we receive involves the use of CME money for educational enrichment. We offer an efficient solution: Amazon and Apple Gift Card add-ons.
It is important to understand that these are not free gifts. These are professional add-ons that you choose to include with your purchase. You can add between $100 and $1,500 in gift card value to your pance prep courses or PANRE review packages. This allows you to consolidate your educational expenses into a single purchase, providing you with the tools you need: such as medical reference books, hardware for studying, or educational software: to further your professional development.
Whether you are preparing for the traditional PANRE or the PANRE-LA, this system ensures you get the maximum utility from your allotted CME funds.
High-Yield Family Medicine Content for the PANRE
To master Family Medicine for your boards, you must focus on the organ systems with the highest percentage weights. According to the NCCPA Blueprint, these areas will make up the bulk of your exam questions.
Cardiology (12% of the Exam)
Cardiology is the highest-weighted section on the PANRE. In a Family Medicine context, you must be proficient in managing chronic conditions.
- Hypertension: Know the JNC and AHA/ACC guidelines. Understand the nuances of choosing an ACE inhibitor over a calcium channel blocker, especially in patients with co-morbidities like diabetes or chronic kidney disease.
- Hyperlipidemia: Focus on statin intensity levels. You should be able to calculate an ASCVD risk score and know exactly when to initiate therapy.
- Heart Failure: Differentiating between HFrEF and HFpEF is critical. Be prepared to answer questions on guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT), including the use of beta-blockers, ACE/ARBs, and SGLT2 inhibitors.
Pulmonology (10% of the Exam)
In family practice, you are the first line of defense for respiratory issues.
- Asthma and COPD: You must know the stepwise approach to treatment. For the PANRE, this means knowing when to move from a SABA to an ICS-formoterol or a LAMA.
- Pneumonia: Be comfortable with outpatient management vs. inpatient admission criteria (CURB-65). Know your first-line antibiotic choices for community-acquired pneumonia (CAP).
Endocrinology (8% of the Exam)
Diabetes management is a daily task in Family Medicine and a frequent topic on the PANRE.
- Diabetes Mellitus Type 2: Understand the mechanism of action for metformin, GLP-1 agonists, and SGLT2 inhibitors. Know the A1C targets and the "rule of 15" for hypoglycemia.
- Thyroid Disorders: Be ready to interpret TSH and Free T4 levels rapidly. Know the starting doses of levothyroxine and how to adjust them during pregnancy.
Clinical Vignettes and Practice Questions
Testing your knowledge with practice questions is the most effective way to identify gaps in your understanding. Every panre review course should include clinical scenarios that mirror the actual exam.
Question 1
Patient: 54-year-old male with a history of hypertension and obesity.
Symptoms: Routine follow-up. He feels well but notes occasional "pounding" in his chest.
Vitals: BP 142/88, HR 112 (irregular), SaO2 98% on room air.
EKG: Absent P-waves and irregularly irregular QRS complexes.
What is the most appropriate next step in calculating this patient's stroke risk?
A) CHA2DS2-VASc score
B) HAS-BLED score
C) Framingham Risk Score
D) ASCVD Risk Calculator
Correct Answer: A) CHA2DS2-VASc score
Explanation: The patient’s EKG is diagnostic of Atrial Fibrillation (AFib). The CHA2DS2-VASc score is the standard tool used to determine the necessity of anticoagulation in patients with non-valvular AFib. A HAS-BLED score (Choice B) assesses bleeding risk but does not dictate the need for anticoagulation itself. Choices C and D are used for general cardiovascular risk and lipid management, respectively, but do not address the specific stroke risk associated with AFib.
Question 2
Patient: 68-year-old female with a 40-pack-year smoking history.
Symptoms: Increasing shortness of breath and a chronic productive cough for the last 4 months.
Vitals: BP 130/82, HR 88, SaO2 91% on room air.
Physical Exam: Increased AP diameter of the chest, decreased breath sounds, and prolonged expiratory phase.
Which of the following is required to confirm the diagnosis of COPD in this patient?
A) Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 0.70
B) Chest X-ray showing hyperinflation
C) Sputum culture for H. influenzae
D) Measurement of Alpha-1 antitrypsin levels
Correct Answer: A) Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 0.70
Explanation: Spirometry is the gold standard for diagnosing COPD. A post-bronchodilator ratio of FEV1/FVC less than 0.70 confirms the presence of persistent airflow limitation. While a chest X-ray (Choice B) may show hyperinflation or a flattened diaphragm, it is not diagnostic. Sputum cultures (Choice C) are used during acute exacerbations, not for initial diagnosis. Alpha-1 antitrypsin (Choice D) should be checked in younger patients or those with a strong family history, but it is not the primary diagnostic tool for obstructive lung disease.
Question 3
Patient: 32-year-old female.
Symptoms: Fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance for 3 months.
Vitals: BP 118/76, HR 58, Temp 97.4°F.
Physical Exam: Sluggish deep tendon reflexes and dry, cool skin.
What is the initial laboratory test of choice for this patient?
A) Serum TSH
B) Free T4
C) Antithyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies
D) Radioactive iodine uptake scan
Correct Answer: A) Serum TSH
Explanation: Serum TSH is the most sensitive initial test for screening and diagnosing primary hypothyroidism. If the TSH is elevated, a Free T4 (Choice B) is then ordered to confirm the diagnosis. TPO antibodies (Choice C) are used to confirm Hashimoto’s thyroiditis but are not the first-line screening test. Radioactive iodine uptake (Choice D) is used in the workup of hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism.
Why Choose CME Review Courses?
Our content is written by physician assistants for physician assistants. We understand the specific constraints of your clinical schedule and the pressure of recertification. Our Family Medicine CME Package and PANRE Review Course provide 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 CME credit, which is the maximum amount allowed for a single course.
Furthermore, our pance prep courses are highly valued by nurse practitioners and physicians. While physicians typically claim Category 2 credit for our programs, many find the clinical review invaluable for refreshing their knowledge in diverse specialties like Emergency Medicine, Orthopedics, and Psychiatry.
By purchasing the PANRE Review Course with Gift Card Add-On, you ensure that your 100 hours of Category 1 credit are handled efficiently while you gain the added value of an Amazon or Apple Gift Card to support your continued learning.
Key Course Features:
- 100 AAPA Category 1 CME Credits (Apply specifically to the PANRE Review Course).
- 30 Months of Full Access: Study at your own pace without the pressure of an expiring subscription.
- Comprehensive Organ System Coverage: Deep dives into the NCCPA Blueprint content.
- Gift Card Flexibility: Add $100 to $1,500 in value to your educational purchase.
Mastering Family Medicine is about more than just passing a test; it’s about providing better care for your patients. Let us help you achieve both.
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