CME Review Courses

Price: $399.99
Duration of Access: 30 Months
Deliverables: 100 Hours of Category 1 AAPA CME Credit

The PANRE-LA (Longitudinal Assessment) has changed the landscape of Physician Assistant recertification. Instead of a high-stakes, once-every-ten-years proctored exam, the NCCPA now offers a more manageable, open-resource format. However, the flexibility of the PANRE-LA comes with specific logistical requirements and deadlines that you must navigate to maintain your PA-C credential.

At CME Review Courses, we provide a PANRE/PANRE-LA Review specifically designed by PAs for PAs. We understand that you need to maximize your study time and your CME budget, which is why our packages include up to 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 CME credit and the option to add on Amazon or Apple gift cards worth up to $1,500.

The PANRE-LA Timeline and Structure

The PANRE-LA is designed to be completed over a three-year period, starting in the seventh year of your ten-year certification maintenance cycle.

1. Eligibility and Application

You are eligible to apply for the PANRE-LA during the sixth year of your recertification cycle. For those due to recertify in 2030, the application window is July 1, 2026, through December 18, 2026. The application fee is currently $350. If you miss this window, you will likely be required to take the traditional PANRE.

2. The 12-Quarter Format

The assessment is spread across 12 quarters (three years).

• 25 Questions per Quarter: You are assigned 25 questions every three months.
• 5 Minutes per Question: Each question has a five-minute time limit.
• Open Resource: You are permitted to use clinical resources, textbooks, or online databases to find answers. This reflects real-world clinical practice where PAs utilize evidence-based tools at the point of care.
• Flexibility: You can complete all 25 questions at once or answer them one by one throughout the quarter.

3. Scoring and Completion

Your final score is calculated based on your performance over your best 8 quarters. This built-in buffer allows for life events or poor performance in a few quarters without jeopardizing your certification.

• Passing Score: 1150.
• Scale: 1000 to 1500.
• Fast-Tracking: If you achieve a passing score before the 12th quarter, you may be finished early. However, you must participate in at least one quarter in the first year and one quarter in the second year to remain eligible.

Why PAs Prefer PANRE-LA Review Courses

While the PANRE-LA is open-resource, the five-minute time limit per question can be a bottleneck if you are unfamiliar with the core content. Efficiently navigating clinical resources requires a strong baseline of knowledge. Our PANRE Review Course provides that baseline, covering Internal Medicine, Family Medicine, Emergency Medicine, and more.

Our content is written by PAs who have been through the process. We focus on high-yield clinical vignettes that mirror the style of the NCCPA questions. By using our PANRE-LA Review Exams, you can earn your 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit while simultaneously preparing for your quarterly question sets.

Maximizing Your CME Budget

Most PAs receive an annual CME allowance from their employers. Our CME with Gift Card options allow you to use that allowance efficiently. You can purchase the Internal Medicine Hospitalist CME Package or the Family Medicine Package and add a gift card to help fund your educational equipment, such as a new laptop or medical reference books.

Clinical Review: Practice Questions

The following scenarios are designed to test your clinical reasoning in the format you will encounter during the PANRE-LA.

Question 1: Cardiology

Your patient is a 64-year-old male presenting for a routine physical. He has a history of hypertension and smoking. On examination, a harsh, mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur is heard at the second right intercostal space, radiating to the carotids. He reports occasional lightheadedness during exertion but denies chest pain or syncope. His HR is 72 bpm, and BP is 138/84 mmHg.

What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Transthoracic Echocardiography
B) Exercise Stress Test
C) Cardiac Catheterization
D) Observation and 6-month follow-up

Explanation: Transthoracic Echocardiography is the correct answer. The physical exam findings are classic for aortic stenosis. Echocardiography is the gold standard for initial diagnosis, allowing for the assessment of the valve area, pressure gradients, and left ventricular function. An exercise stress test (B) is often contraindicated in symptomatic patients with severe aortic stenosis due to the risk of sudden cardiac death. Cardiac catheterization (C) is reserved for pre-surgical planning or when non-invasive tests are inconclusive. Observation (D) is inappropriate given the onset of symptoms (lightheadedness).

Question 2: Dermatology

Your patient is a 32-year-old female complaining of a persistent, intensely pruritic rash on her wrists and between her fingers. She notes the itching is significantly worse at night. On examination, you observe small, erythematous papules and several thin, linear tracks. Other members of her household are beginning to experience similar symptoms.

What is the first-line treatment for this patient?

A) Permethrin 5% cream
B) Oral Fluconazole
C) Triamcinolone 0.1% ointment
D) Hydrocortisone 1% cream

Explanation: Permethrin 5% cream is the correct answer. The presentation of nocturnal pruritus, linear burrows in the web spaces of the fingers, and similar symptoms in household contacts is pathognomonic for scabies. Permethrin is the first-line topical treatment and should be applied from the neck down and washed off after 8-14 hours. Oral Fluconazole (B) is an antifungal and ineffective against mites. Topical steroids (C and D) may temporarily reduce inflammation but will not eradicate the infestation.

Question 3: Infectious Disease

Your patient is a 24-year-old male presenting with a 3-day history of fever, sore throat, and significant fatigue. Physical examination reveals posterior cervical lymphadenopathy and pharyngeal exudates. You also note mild splenomegaly. A rapid strep test is negative.

What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

A) Heterophile Antibody Test (Monospot)
B) Throat Culture
C) Anti-Streptolysin O (ASO) Titer
D) Liver Function Tests

Explanation: Heterophile Antibody Test (Monospot) is the correct answer. The constellation of fever, pharyngitis, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly in a young adult strongly suggests Infectious Mononucleosis, typically caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The Heterophile Antibody Test is the standard initial diagnostic tool. A throat culture (B) would be used if Group A Streptococcus was suspected, but the posterior lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly point toward EBV. ASO titer (C) identifies previous streptococcal infections. Liver function tests (D) may show elevations in mononucleosis but are not the primary confirmatory test.

Final Thoughts on PANRE-LA Preparation

Maintaining your certification does not have to be an overwhelming burden. The PANRE-LA provides a path that rewards clinical experience and the ability to use resources effectively. By choosing a review course that offers high-yield content and significant CME credit, you are setting yourself up for success across all 12 quarters.

If you are a nurse practitioner, keep in mind that AAPA Category 1 credit can often be used for your recertification requirements, though this varies by state. Physicians looking for Category 2 credit will also find high value in our Cardiology Review and Emergency Medicine CME modules.

Ready to start? Browse our full catalog of CME packages and find the one that fits your clinical practice and your budget.

Price: $399.99 for the PANRE Review Course CME Package
Credits: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 CME
Access: 12 months of online access
Deliverables: Comprehensive video modules, searchable PDF handouts, and an extensive question bank.

Pharmacology is the backbone of clinical practice, yet it remains one of the most challenging content areas on the NCCPA blueprint. Whether you are preparing for your initial certification or your tenth recertification cycle, mastering drug classes, mechanisms of action, and contraindications is essential. At CME Review Courses, we provide the tools you need to master these concepts while fulfilling your professional requirements efficiently.

When you purchase our PANRE review course, you aren't just getting a study guide; you are securing 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 CME credit. This is designed to satisfy your entire two-year CME cycle in a single purchase. Additionally, we offer a unique administrative feature: the ability to include a $100 to $1500 Amazon or Apple Gift Card as an add-on to your purchase. It is important to note that these gift cards are NOT free gifts. They are an add-on to the total price of your CME package, allowing you to maximize your employer-provided CME budget.

Mastering the Pharmacology Blueprint

The NCCPA blueprint allocates a significant portion of the PANCE and PANRE exams to the application of pharmacological principles across all organ systems. From managing hypertension in the cardiovascular system to treating complex endocrine disorders, your ability to select the correct first-line agent is critical.

Our pharmacology review CME focuses on high-yield clinical pearls. We don't just ask you to memorize drug names; we teach you the "why" behind the choice. Understanding why a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) should avoid certain NSAIDs, or why a patient on an ACE inhibitor shouldn't be started on a potassium-sparing diuretic without close monitoring, is what separates a proficient clinician from one who is simply guessing.

The 100-Credit Advantage

For PAs, the 100-hour requirement for AAPA Category 1 credits can be a logistical headache. Our PANRE review course simplifies this by providing exactly what the NCCPA requires. By completing the course and the associated assessments, you earn your credits in a streamlined fashion.

If you are specifically looking for a deeper dive into medications, our pharmacology review CME question bank offers targeted practice that mirrors the difficulty level of the actual board exams. This is especially useful for clinicians in Family Medicine or Internal Medicine, where polypharmacy and drug-to-drug interactions are daily challenges.

Customizing Your Purchase with CME Gift Cards

One of the most frequent questions we receive is about our cme gift cards. Most healthcare employers provide an annual CME allowance. If you have funds remaining in your budget, you can add an Amazon or Apple Gift Card to your purchase.

• Customizable Values: Add anywhere from $100 up to $1500.
• Transparency: These are NOT free. The cost of the gift card is added to the total price of the educational package.
• Documentation: For those who need specific formatting for reimbursement, we offer options such as CME with gift card not on receipt to help you comply with your individual employer's reimbursement policies.

By utilizing these pance prep courses with add-on incentives, you can upgrade your clinical knowledge and your technology suite (via Apple) or home office (via Amazon) simultaneously.

Clinical Vignettes: Pharmacology in Practice

To give you a taste of the pharmacology CME content included in our courses, let's look at a few clinical scenarios you might encounter on your boards or in the clinic.

Scenario 1: Cardiovascular Management

Your patient is a 64-year-old male with a history of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) and a current ejection fraction of 35%. He is currently taking Lisinopril, Carvedilol, and Furosemide. His blood pressure is 138/84 mmHg and his HR is 62 bpm. He complains of persistent shortness of breath with mild exertion. Which of the following medications, if added to his regimen, has been shown to reduce mortality and hospitalization in this patient population?

A) Diltiazem
B) Spironolactone
C) Isosorbide mononitrate
D) Hydrochlorothiazide

Correct Answer: B) Spironolactone
Explanation: In patients with HFrEF (NYHA Class II-IV) who are already on optimal therapy with ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers, the addition of an aldosterone antagonist like Spironolactone has been shown to significantly reduce mortality and morbidity. Diltiazem (a calcium channel blocker) is generally avoided in HFrEF. Isosorbide mononitrate may help with symptoms but does not carry the same mortality benefit as spironolactone in this specific context.

Scenario 2: Endocrine Pharmacology

Your patient is a 52-year-old female with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. Her current A1c is 8.2% despite maximal doses of Metformin. She has a BMI of 34 kg/m² and a history of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease (ASCVD). You want to initiate a second-line agent that provides both glycemic control and cardiovascular benefit. Which class is the most appropriate next step?

A) Sulfonylureas
B) DPP-4 inhibitors
C) GLP-1 receptor agonists
D) Meglitinides

Correct Answer: C) GLP-1 receptor agonists
Explanation: For patients with Type 2 DM and established ASCVD, the ADA guidelines recommend the use of either a GLP-1 receptor agonist (like Liraglutide or Semaglutide) or an SGLT2 inhibitor. These classes have proven cardiovascular benefits beyond glucose lowering. Sulfonylureas and Meglitinides carry a higher risk of hypoglycemia and do not offer cardiovascular protection.

Scenario 3: Infectious Disease

Your patient is a 28-year-old male presenting with a purulent skin abscess on his left thigh. He has no significant past medical history and no known drug allergies. After performing an incision and drainage (I&D), you decide to start empirical oral antibiotics to cover for Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following is the most appropriate choice?

A) Cephalexin
B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C) Amoxicillin-clavulanate
D) Azithromycin

Correct Answer: B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Explanation: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) is a first-line oral agent for the treatment of community-acquired MRSA skin infections. Cephalexin and Amoxicillin-clavulanate provide excellent coverage for Methicillin-sensitive S. aureus (MSSA) and Streptococcus but are ineffective against MRSA. Azithromycin has high rates of resistance among Staphylococcal species.

Why Choose CME Review Courses?

Preparation for the PANCE or PANRE requires a systematic approach. Our curriculum is built around the NCCPA blueprint content areas, ensuring you spend your time on the topics that matter most.

If you are working in a specialty like Psychiatry or Family Medicine, the breadth of pharmacology can be overwhelming. Our modules break down complex pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics into digestible, clinically relevant segments.

The convenience of our platform allows you to study at your own pace. With the 100-hour AAPA Category 1 CME credit package, you can be confident that you are meeting your professional obligations while genuinely improving your patient care.

Investing in Your Career and Your Tech

When choosing between various cme with gift card options, remember the value of the education provided. While the $1500 gift card add-on is a fantastic way to utilize your CME budget for an Amazon or Apple purchase, the primary goal is your success on the PANRE/PANCE.

Our courses are updated regularly to reflect the latest guidelines in Gastrointestinal, Genitourinary, and EENT medicine. By integrating high-quality video content with rigorous practice questions, we provide a comprehensive solution for the modern PA.

Final Thoughts for the Busy Clinician

Time is your most valuable asset. Spending weeks piecing together 100 hours of CME from various free sources is often more "expensive" in terms of lost time than simply purchasing a comprehensive review course. By choosing the PANRE Review Course with Gift Card Add-on, you solve two problems at once: you get the best board prep available, and you maximize your contract benefits through our boardvitals cme gift card and audio digest cme gift card equivalent options.

Don't wait until the end of your cycle to scramble for credits. Secure your 100-hour CME package today, add the gift card that fits your budget, and get back to what matters most: treating your patients with confidence and up-to-date pharmacological knowledge.

Let’s be honest: when you’re prepping for the PANRE, you don’t want to be taught by someone who has never sat in the "hot seat" of a busy clinic or the high-stakes environment of a Pearson VUE testing center. You want the insider trading. You want the high-yield, "just tell me what I need to know" secrets that only another Physician Assistant can provide. That is the exact philosophy behind the PANRE Review Course at CME Review Courses.

Written by PAs, for PAs, this content cuts through the fluff of traditional academic lecturing and gets straight to the clinical heart of the NCCPA blueprint. It’s efficient, it’s relevant, and quite frankly, it’s the secret weapon you didn't know you needed.

Quick Logistics: What You’re Getting

• Price: $399.99
• Duration of Access: 30 months
• Quantifiable Deliverables: 1,672 Board-Style Review Questions, Answers, and Detailed Explanations
• Credit: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME Credit (Note: NCCPA applies an additional 50% weighting, making this worth 150 credits in your portal).

The Efficiency of the Peer Perspective

When a physician writes a board review, they often dive into the deep, dark rabbit holes of pathophysiology that you’ll likely never see on a recertification exam. When a PA writes it, we focus on the clinical presentation, the first-line diagnostic tests, and the "must-not-miss" treatments. We know exactly how the NCCPA likes to phrase questions because we’ve been there.

This course covers the entire spectrum of the PANRE blueprint, including Cardiology, Pulmonology, GI, Musculoskeletal, and beyond. Because it was developed by practicing PAs, the language is familiar and the focus is pragmatic. We don’t just give you a list of symptoms; we give you the "clinical gut feeling" that helps you differentiate between two similar-looking diagnoses under the pressure of the clock.

Not Just for PAs: Value for the Whole Team

While our primary mission is helping our fellow PAs crush the PANRE, our content has become a favorite for other clinicians as well.

• For Physicians: This course provides excellent clinical refreshers. While it does not count for Category 1 CME for physicians, it is highly valued for Category 2 CME.
• For Nurse Practitioners: Many states and credentialing bodies (like the AANP) accept AAPA Category 1 credit for NP recertification. It’s a great way for NPs to get a deep dive into medical blueprints while earning their required hours.

Enrich Your Education (and Your Wallet)

We know you have a CME budget, and we want you to use it as efficiently as possible. This is why we offer our CME with Amazon and Apple Gift Card add-ons. You can add a gift card ranging from $100 to $1,500 to your purchase. The gift card cost is bundled into the total package price on one receipt, allowing you to use your employer-provided funds to secure both high-quality education and the tools (like a new tablet or medical equipment) you need to further your professional development.

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Clinical Assessment: Putting Knowledge into Practice

To give you a taste of the PA-to-PA style, let's look at a few clinical scenarios. These are the types of high-yield questions you will encounter among the 1,672 questions in our PANRE Review Course.

Scenario 1: Cardiology

Your patient is a 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and tobacco use who presents to the clinic with complaints of progressive exertional chest pain over the last three months. He describes the pain as a "heavy pressure" that radiates to his left jaw, occurring after walking two blocks and resolving with rest. His current medications include lisinopril and amlodipine. On physical exam, his HR is 72 bpm and BP is 138/84 mmHg. Lungs are clear and S1/S2 are normal. EKG shows normal sinus rhythm with no ST-segment changes.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A) Immediate referral for cardiac catheterization
B) Exercise stress echocardiography
C) Start high-intensity statin and aspirin, then re-evaluate in 4 weeks
D) Troponin I and CK-MB levels

Explanation:
The correct answer is B) Exercise stress echocardiography. The patient’s presentation is classic for stable angina. Since his baseline EKG is normal and he is capable of exercise, a stress test is the appropriate non-invasive next step to evaluate for inducible ischemia. A is incorrect as catheterization is generally reserved for unstable symptoms or high-risk findings on non-invasive testing. C is incorrect because while those medications are indicated, the diagnosis must be confirmed first. D is incorrect as cardiac enzymes are used for acute coronary syndrome (ACS) evaluation, and this patient is currently asymptomatic with a chronic, stable pattern.

Scenario 2: Dermatology

Your patient is a 24-year-old female who presents with a "stubborn rash" on her back. She states it began two weeks ago with a single, large, oval-shaped red patch on her abdomen, followed by a sudden eruption of smaller, similar-looking lesions across her trunk. She notes mild pruritus but is otherwise asymptomatic. On exam, you observe multiple salmon-colored, scaly papules and plaques following the cleavage lines of the back in a "Christmas tree" distribution.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Tinea Corporis
B) Secondary Syphilis
C) Pityriasis Rosea
D) Guttate Psoriasis

Explanation:
The correct answer is C) Pityriasis Rosea. The "herald patch" followed by a secondary eruption in a "Christmas tree" distribution is pathognomonic. A is incorrect because tinea corporis usually presents as a single or few annular lesions with central clearing, not a widespread eruption. B is incorrect as secondary syphilis usually involves the palms and soles and often presents with lymphadenopathy. D is incorrect because guttate psoriasis typically follows a streptococcal infection and the scales are much thicker and more silvery.

Scenario 3: Pulmonology

Your patient is a 55-year-old male smoker with a history of COPD who presents with increased shortness of breath and a productive cough for the past three days. He has noticed a change in the color and amount of his sputum. His SaO2 is 90% on room air (baseline 93%). On auscultation, you hear diffuse wheezing and diminished breath sounds. He is not in acute respiratory distress.

In addition to increasing his bronchodilator frequency, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this acute exacerbation?

A) Outpatient treatment with oral prednisone and a macrolide
B) Immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation
C) High-flow oxygen to achieve an SaO2 of 100%
D) Inhaled corticosteroids only

Explanation:
The correct answer is A) Outpatient treatment with oral prednisone and a macrolide. Management of a COPD exacerbation includes bronchodilators, systemic corticosteroids (prednisone), and often antibiotics if sputum purulence or volume increases. B is incorrect as he is not in acute failure. C is incorrect because over-oxygenating a COPD patient can lead to hypercapnia; the goal is usually 88-92%. D is incorrect as inhaled steroids are for maintenance, not the primary treatment for an acute flare.

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Conclusion

Recertifying doesn't have to be a grind. By choosing a review course designed by your peers, you ensure that your study time is spent on the topics that actually matter for your practice and your exam. With 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit, a massive question bank, and the ability to add on a gift card for your own professional enrichment, the PANRE Review Course is the most efficient choice for today's Physician Assistant.

Don't just study: study smart with the PAs who have been where you are.

Choosing a panre review course is a significant decision for any Physician Assistant. It isn't just about finding a study guide; it’s about strategically managing your certification cycle, maximizing your employer-provided CME budget, and ensuring you have the clinical knowledge to pass the NCCPA exam. With the transition to the PANRE-LA and the traditional PANRE still being a primary option for many, the demand for high-yield, credit-heavy courses has never been higher.

At CME Review Courses, we provide a comprehensive solution that balances rigorous clinical review with the logistical needs of a working professional. When you are looking for pance prep courses or a dedicated PANRE review, you need to look at three pillars: the quality of the content, the volume of AAPA Category 1 credits, and the flexibility of the purchasing options, including cme gift cards.

The Value of 100 AAPA Category 1 Credits

The NCCPA requires PAs to earn 100 CME credits every two years, with at least 50 of those being Category 1. However, there is a strategic advantage to choosing a course that offers exactly 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME.

The NCCPA provides a 50% "weighting" bonus for self-assessment credits. This means that completing our 100-hour panre review course actually nets you 150 credits toward your NCCPA requirements. This one course can essentially fulfill your entire Category 1 requirement for the cycle and then some, allowing you to focus on your practice rather than hunting for piecemeal credits.

Our course is designed to be comprehensive, featuring 1,672 practice questions and content mapped directly to the NCCPA blueprint. This ensures that the time you spend earning these credits is directly applicable to the exam you will sit for.

Maximizing Your CME Budget: The Gift Card Add-On Explained

One of the most common questions we receive involves our gift card options. Many employers provide a flat annual CME allowance: often ranging from $1,500 to $3,000. If a review course only costs a few hundred dollars, you are essentially leaving "free" money on the table if you cannot find a way to utilize the full balance.

To solve this, we offer Amazon and Apple Gift Card add-ons ranging from $100 to $1500.

It is critical to understand that these gift cards are NOT free gifts. They are add-ons that are included in the total purchase price of your CME package. By adding a gift card to your PANRE Review Course with Gift Card purchase, you increase the total cost of the invoice to match your employer's reimbursement limit. You receive the 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit required for your certification and a gift card to purchase the hardware (like an iPad or MacBook) or medical texts you need for your clinical practice.

Clinical Content: What to Expect

A high-quality panre review course must cover the breadth of medical specialties. Our curriculum is divided into blueprint-specific modules. Whether you are focusing on the Cardiovascular Blueprint or need a refresher on the Pulmonary Blueprint, the content is delivered in a concise, high-yield format.

The goal is not just to provide information but to teach you how to apply it to the clinical vignettes you will encounter on the exam. We prioritize the "must-know" diagnostic steps and first-line treatments that the NCCPA frequently tests.

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Clinical Practice: Assessing Your Knowledge

To give you a sense of the depth and style of our pance prep courses, review the following clinical vignettes. These represent the types of questions found in our 1,672-question bank.

Case 1: Cardiology

Your patient is a 72-year-old male with a history of hypertension and tobacco use who presents to the clinic complaining of "fluttering" in his chest and mild shortness of breath for the past three days. He denies chest pain or syncope. On physical exam, his heart rate is 132 bpm and irregularly irregular. His blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg. An ECG confirms atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient’s stroke risk?

A) Start Aspirin 81mg daily
B) Perform immediate electrical cardioversion
C) Calculate the CHA2DS2-VASc score
D) Initiate Clopidogrel

Correct Answer: C) Calculate the CHA2DS2-VASc score.
Explanation: In patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation, the CHA2DS2-VASc score is the standard tool for assessing thromboembolic risk and determining the need for oral anticoagulation (OAC). Aspirin is no longer recommended as monotherapy for stroke prevention in AFib. Immediate cardioversion is reserved for hemodynamically unstable patients. Clopidogrel is not the first-line choice for stroke prevention in the setting of AFib.

Case 2: Pulmonary

Your patient is a 28-year-old female who presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea. She recently returned from a 12-hour international flight. She takes oral contraceptive pills but has no other significant medical history. Her vital signs are: HR 112 bpm, BP 110/70 mmHg, RR 24 bpm, and SaO2 91% on room air. Her physical exam reveals a swollen, tender left calf.

What is the gold standard diagnostic study for the suspected condition?

A) Chest X-ray
B) Ventilation-Perfusion (V/Q) scan
C) Pulmonary angiography
D) CT Angiography (CTA) of the chest

Correct Answer: C) Pulmonary angiography.
Explanation: While CT Angiography (CTA) is the most commonly used initial imaging modality for a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) due to its availability and high sensitivity, pulmonary angiography remains the gold standard (though it is invasive and rarely performed). A V/Q scan is an alternative for patients with renal failure or contrast allergies. Chest X-rays are often normal in PE (the "Westermark sign" or "Hampton’s hump" are rare).

Case 3: Gastroenterology

Your patient is a 45-year-old female who presents with severe epigastric and right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain that radiates to her right scapula. The pain began shortly after eating a fried chicken dinner. She also reports nausea and one episode of non-bilious emesis. On exam, she has significant tenderness in the RUQ, and she halts inspiration when the clinician palpates the RUQ.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Acute pancreatitis
B) Acute cholecystitis
C) Peptic ulcer disease
D) Nephrolithiasis

Correct Answer: B) Acute cholecystitis.
Explanation: This patient is presenting with a classic "Murphy’s sign" (arrest of inspiration on RUQ palpation), which is highly suggestive of acute cholecystitis. The triggers (fatty meal) and radiation of pain to the scapula (Boas' sign) are characteristic. While pancreatitis presents with epigastric pain, it typically radiates to the back and is associated with elevated lipase.

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Choosing the Right Module for Your Needs

Not every PA needs a full 100-hour review. If you are preparing for an End of Rotation (EOR) exam or want to focus on a specific area of weakness, we offer targeted blueprint reviews. Each of these also qualifies for AAPA Category 1 credits:

• Emergency Medicine: Our Emergency Medicine EOR Review is perfect for students or PAs transitioning back into acute care.
• Specialty Blueprints: We offer focused reviews for Infectious Disease, Neurology, and Psychiatry.
• Primary Care: The Family Medicine options are ideal for the generalist PA.

Logistical Benefits of CME Review Courses

When you purchase a panre review course from us, you aren't just getting a PDF. You are getting a system designed for the modern PA:

1. Immediate Access: Start studying the moment you purchase.
2. Quantifiable Deliverables: 1,672 questions ensure you have seen every angle of the blueprint.
3. Financial Efficiency: Using cme gift cards ensures you use your entire employer allowance on the tools you need for professional success.
4. Credit Awarding: Credits are awarded upon completion of an electronic evaluation. The 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit applies specifically to the PANRE Review course.

Final Thoughts on Selection

The best panre review course is the one that fits into your life while meeting your professional requirements. If you are nearing the end of your CME cycle and still need to fulfill your Category 1 requirements, the 100-hour course is the most efficient path forward.

If you have a CME budget that expires at the end of the year, adding an Amazon or Apple gift card to your purchase is a logical way to ensure you don't lose those funds. Whether you need the Musculoskeletal Blueprint or a broad PACKRAT Review, CME Review Courses provides the clinical depth and logistical flexibility to help you succeed.

Don't wait until the month before your exam. Start your review today and turn your CME budget into both a passing score and the technology you need for your clinic. For more information on our full catalog, visit cmereviewcourses.com.

Price: $399.99
Access Duration: 30 Months
Deliverables: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME Credit, 17 Hours of Video Content, 1,672 Board-Style Questions

Successfully navigating the PANRE requires more than just clinical knowledge; it requires a strategic understanding of how the NCCPA weights each organ system. In 2026, the blueprint remains the definitive guide for your preparation. Attempting to master every rare orphan disease is a common pitfall that ignores the statistical reality of the exam.

The PANRE Review Course was designed by PAs for PAs to align specifically with these weightings. By focusing your limited study time on high-yield categories, you maximize your score while earning 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 CME.

The Blueprint Breakdown: Where the Points Are

The NCCPA content blueprint is not a suggestion; it is a roadmap. If you ignore the percentages, you are essentially guessing which topics will appear on your exam. Here is how the organ systems are currently distributed for the PANRE:

• Cardiovascular System: 13%
• Pulmonary System: 10%
• Gastrointestinal System/Nutrition: 9%
• Musculoskeletal System: 9%
• Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat (EENT): 7%
• Endocrine System: 7%
• Genitourinary System: 7%
• Neurologic System: 7%
• Reproductive System (Male and Female): 7%
• Infectious Diseases: 6%
• Psychiatry/Behavioral Science: 5%
• Dermatologic System: 5%
• Hematologic System: 3%

High-Yield Focus: Internal and Family Medicine Core

Combined, Cardiovascular, Pulmonary, GI, and Musculoskeletal systems account for 41% of your exam. This is why our PANRE Review Course emphasizes these Internal Medicine and Family Medicine core competencies. You cannot pass this exam by being "okay" at Cardiology; you must be proficient.

The weightings also indicate where not to spend excessive time. While Hematology (3%) is important for clinical practice, spending a week memorizing the nuances of rare thalassemias at the expense of Heart Failure (13%) is a poor use of resources. Our course provides 17 hours of video lecture that directly mirrors this blueprint, ensuring you stay focused on the "big hitters."

Clinical Practice: Assessing High-Yield Knowledge

The following vignettes represent the level of detail and clinical reasoning required for the PANRE. Test your knowledge on these high-yield blueprint topics.

Scenario 1: Cardiology (13%)

Your patient is a 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia who presents to the clinic complaining of increased dyspnea on exertion and a dry cough when lying down at night. On physical exam, you note a displaced apical impulse and 2+ bilateral pitting edema in the lower extremities. Vital signs are: BP 155/90 mmHg, HR 88 bpm, RR 18, SaO2 94% on room air. An echocardiogram reveals an ejection fraction of 35%.

Which of the following medication classes is indicated to improve mortality in this patient?
A. Loop Diuretics
B. Calcium Channel Blockers
C. ACE Inhibitors
D. Digoxin

Scenario 2: Pulmonary (10%)

Your patient is a 24-year-old female with a history of mild intermittent asthma who presents for a follow-up. She reports using her albuterol inhaler four days a week over the last month. She has been awakened by wheezing three times in the past thirty days. Her FEV1 is 82% of predicted.

What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient’s asthma?
A. Maintain current therapy with PRN albuterol
B. Add a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
C. Start a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) as monotherapy
D. Add an oral leukotriene receptor antagonist

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Explanations and Clinical Justification

Scenario 1 Correct Answer: C. ACE Inhibitors

ACE Inhibitors (or ARBs/ARNIs) are the correct choice because they have been definitively proven to reduce mortality and morbidity in patients with Heart Failure with reduced Ejection Fraction (HFrEF). They inhibit the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, preventing maladaptive cardiac remodeling.

• Loop Diuretics (A) are essential for symptom management (edema, congestion) but do not provide a mortality benefit.
• Calcium Channel Blockers (B), specifically non-dihydropyridines, should be avoided in HFrEF as they can worsen heart failure.
• Digoxin (D) may reduce hospitalizations but does not improve survival rates.

Scenario 2 Correct Answer: B. Add a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

The correct answer is to add a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS). This patient meets the criteria for mild persistent asthma (symptoms > 2 days/week and nocturnal awakenings 3–4 times/month). Low-dose ICS is the preferred controller therapy to reduce airway inflammation and prevent exacerbations.

• Maintaining current therapy (A) is inappropriate as she is currently uncontrolled.
• LABA monotherapy (C) is contraindicated in asthma due to an increased risk of asthma-related death.
• Leukotriene receptor antagonists (D) are an alternative but are generally considered second-line to ICS.

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Maximizing Your CME Budget with Gift Card Add-Ons

Preparing for the PANRE is a significant professional commitment. We believe that your educational budget should work harder for you. Our PANRE Review Course includes an optional gift card add-on feature.

When you purchase the course, you can add an Amazon or Apple Gift Card ranging from $100 to $1,500. This allows you to bundle your educational expenses with a tool for further enrichment: whether that is a new iPad for clinical reference or medical equipment for your practice. The total price is reflected on a single invoice, providing an efficient way to utilize your employer-sponsored CME allowance.

The 150-Credit Bonus

One of the most efficient aspects of this course is how the NCCPA handles self-assessment credits. While the course provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 CME, the NCCPA applies a 50% weighting bonus when you log these specific credits for certification maintenance. This means completing this one course satisfies 150 credits toward your maintenance requirements, significantly reducing your administrative burden.

Whether you are a Physician Assistant in Family Medicine, Internal Medicine, or a specialized field like Orthopedics or Dermatology, the core blueprint remains your common hurdle. Use our 1,672 board-style questions and 17 hours of clinical video to ensure you aren't just studying, but studying the right material.

Quick Summary of Course Benefits:

• Accreditation: 100 Hours AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME.
• Value: One purchase can satisfy up to 150 NCCPA credits.
• Content: 1,672 board-style questions and 17 hours of blueprint-aligned video.
• Flexibility: 30 months of access on any device.
• Incentives: $100-$1500 Amazon or Apple Gift Card add-ons available.

Get Started with the PANRE Review Course Today

Course: PANRE Review Course
Price: $399.99
Access: 30 Months
Deliverables: 17 hours of video content, 1,672 Board-Style Practice Questions, and 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 CME Credit.

Physician Assistants facing recertification in 2026 must choose between the traditional PANRE and the longitudinal PANRE-LA. Both pathways require rigorous preparation and a firm grasp of the NCCPA blueprint. While the delivery methods differ, the clinical knowledge required remains consistent. Choosing the right path depends on your clinical schedule, testing preferences, and CME needs.

The PANRE-LA: A Longitudinal Approach

The PANRE-LA is a longitudinal assessment consisting of 12 quarters. PAs receive 25 questions per quarter, which can be answered in any location. You have five minutes per question and may use reference materials. This "open-book" format does not reduce the difficulty of the questions; rather, it shifts the focus from rote memorization to clinical resource management and rapid decision-making.

For those in their 2026 cycle, participation requirements are strict. You must complete at least one quarter in each of the first two years to remain eligible. The NCCPA bases your final score on the best 8 of the first 12 quarters. If you achieve a passing score early, you may finish the process in two years.

The Traditional PANRE: A Standardized Experience

The traditional PANRE remains a four-hour, 240-question exam administered at Pearson VUE testing centers. This format is often preferred by PAs who wish to complete their recertification in a single day rather than spreading the obligation over multiple years. It requires high-stamina mental focus and a closed-book approach to the medical blueprint.

Comprehensive Prep with the PANRE Review Course

Regardless of the chosen pathway, the PANRE Review Course at CME Review Courses provides the necessary framework for success. This course is designed by PAs specifically for PAs, ensuring that the content is relevant to current clinical practice and board expectations.

The course offers 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 CME credit. Notably, the NCCPA applies a 50% weighting bonus to self-assessment credits. When you complete this course and log your 100 hours, it effectively counts as 150 hours toward your NCCPA requirements. This efficiency is critical for PAs balancing full-time clinical duties with certification maintenance.

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Clinical Assessment: Cardiovascular Medicine

Your patient is a 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and diabetes who presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations and lightheadedness. His heart rate is 142 bpm, blood pressure is 112/74 mmHg, and SaO2 is 98% on room air. The following ECG is obtained:

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Immediate synchronized cardioversion
B. Administration of intravenous diltiazem
C. Administration of intravenous adenosine
D. Permanent pacemaker insertion
E. Initiation of high-dose aspirin

Correct Answer: B. Administration of intravenous diltiazem

Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Administration of intravenous diltiazem. The ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response (RVR). Since the patient is hemodynamically stable (BP 112/74), the initial goal is rate control. Calcium channel blockers like diltiazem or beta-blockers are first-line agents for achieving rate control in stable patients.

• Choice A is incorrect because synchronized cardioversion is reserved for hemodynamically unstable patients (e.g., hypotension, altered mental status, or acute pulmonary edema).
• Choice C is incorrect as adenosine is used for supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with a regular rhythm, not the "irregularly irregular" rhythm of atrial fibrillation.
• Choice D is incorrect because a pacemaker is indicated for symptomatic bradycardia or high-grade AV blocks, not tachyarrhythmias.
• Choice E is incorrect because while anticoagulation is necessary for stroke prevention in AFib (calculated by CHA2DS2-VASc), aspirin is insufficient as a primary rate control or anticoagulation strategy in this setting.

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Expanding Your Education: The Pharmacology Course

In addition to the 100-hour PANRE Review, we offer a dedicated Pharmacology Course. This course also provides Category 1 AAPA Credit. It is an essential supplement for PAs in states with specific pharmacology CME mandates and for Nurse Practitioners (NPs) who require pharmacology hours for their recertification.

While our primary audience is Physician Assistants, our content holds significant value for other medical professionals.

• Nurse Practitioners: Category 1 AAPA credit is accepted by the ANCC and AANP in many states, though individual state boards should be consulted.
• Physicians: While this course does not provide Category 1 CME for physicians, it is eligible for Category 2 CME. Many Internal Medicine and Emergency Medicine physicians utilize our packages for the high-yield clinical content written from a practical perspective.

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Clinical Assessment: Dermatology

Your patient is a 24-year-old female who presents with a sudden onset of a pruritic rash on her arms and legs. She recently completed a course of sulfonamides for a urinary tract infection. On physical exam, you note multiple erythematous "target" lesions with a central vesicle. She has no mucosal involvement.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)
B. Erythema Multiforme Minor
C. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)
D. Bullous Pemphigoid
E. Psoriasis Vulgaris

Correct Answer: B. Erythema Multiforme Minor

Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Erythema Multiforme Minor. This condition is characterized by the classic "target" (iris) lesions often triggered by infections (like Herpes Simplex Virus) or medications (like sulfonamides). The absence of mucosal involvement distinguishes EM Minor from EM Major.

• Choice A and C are incorrect because SJS and TEN involve significant mucosal involvement and widespread skin sloughing (positive Nikolsky sign), which are absent here.
• Choice D is incorrect because bullous pemphigoid typically presents in older adults with large, tense bullae rather than targetoid lesions.
• Choice E is incorrect as psoriasis presents with silver-scaled plaques on extensor surfaces, not acute target lesions following medication use.

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Maximize Your CME Budget: Gift Card Add-Ons

We recognize that PAs often have a set CME allowance from their employers. To help you further enrich your professional library or purchase necessary medical equipment, we offer Amazon and Apple Gift Card add-ons.

When purchasing the PANRE Review Course or any of our CME with Gift Card packages, you can add a gift card ranging from $100 to $1500 to your order. This allows you to utilize your CME funds efficiently, securing both high-quality education and the tools you need for your practice.

Why Our Content is Different

Our content is written by PAs who have navigated the same exams and clinical challenges you face. We cover the entire NCCPA blueprint, including:

• Cardiology
• Pulmonary Medicine
• Gastrointestinal/Nutrition
• Musculoskeletal
• Reproductive Health
• Neurology
• Psychiatry
• Emergency Medicine
• Dermatology

Each module is designed to be high-yield, focusing on the most likely scenarios you will encounter on the PANRE or PANRE-LA and in daily practice. Our Orthopedics CME Package and Emergency Medicine modules are particularly highly rated for their clinical utility.

Conclusion

The decision between PANRE and PANRE-LA in 2026 should be based on your preferred learning style. However, the quality of your preparation is non-negotiable. With 1,672 board-style questions and 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 CME, the CME Review Courses PANRE Package is the most efficient way to maintain your certification and stay current in your clinical knowledge.

Lead with confidence in 2026. Secure your access to the PANRE Review Course today.