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How to Choose the Best PANRE Review Course (And Get More for Your CME Money)

Choosing the right PANRE or PANRE-LA review course is a critical decision that impacts your recertification success and your professional budget. As a Physician Assistant, your time is limited, and your CME allowance is a finite resource. Selecting a course that provides high-yield content while maximizing your financial benefits is essential.

Course Logistics and Deliverables:

  • Price: $399.99 (Base price for the PANRE/PANRE-LA Review Exams bundle).
  • Duration of Access: Lifetime access (No subscription, no platform login, you own the files).
  • Quantifiable Deliverables: 720 total questions across 3 full-length exams (240 questions per exam).
  • CME Credit: 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 CME credit (Applies specifically to our comprehensive PANRE Review Course).
  • Gift Card Options: Amazon and Apple Gift Card add-ons available from $100 to $1500.

The Core Criteria for PANRE Success

The NCCPA blueprint is not a suggestion; it is the definitive guide to your exam. When evaluating a review course, you must look beyond the marketing fluff and focus on clinical relevance and question structure.

1. Direct Blueprint Alignment

A quality course must mirror the NCCPA PANRE/PANRE-LA Content Blueprint. If a question bank is heavy on rare dermatological conditions but light on cardiovascular and pulmonary systems, it is not preparing you for the reality of the exam. The PANRE/PANRE-LA Review Exams are built to the exact percentages required: Cardiovascular (11%), Pulmonary (9%), and Gastrointestinal (8%). This ensures your study time is proportional to the exam's weight.

2. The 5-Answer Multiple-Choice Format

Many generic question banks use a 4-answer format. The actual PANRE uses a 5-answer multiple-choice format. Practicing with only four options artificially inflates your practice scores and fails to simulate the cognitive load of distinguishing between two or three very similar clinical presentations. You need to train with the same level of difficulty you will face at the testing center.

MCQ Format Comparison

3. Written by PAs for PAs

There is a distinct difference in how PAs practice and how medical students or physicians are tested. Our content is created by practicing Physician Assistants who have successfully navigated the PANRE and PANRE-LA. We understand the specific nuances of PA education and the clinical reasoning expected by the NCCPA.

Maximizing Your CME Money: The Gift Card Strategy

Most PAs receive an annual CME allowance from their employer. Often, this money is "use it or lose it." If you have $2,000 to spend and the course only costs $400, you are essentially leaving $1,600 on the table.

The Amazon and Apple Gift Card Add-On

We offer a unique way to enrich your education. By selecting a CME with Gift Card package, you can add an Amazon or Apple gift card (up to $1500) to your purchase. This allows you to purchase the medical equipment, tech tools, or textbooks you need to further your clinical practice.

The "Clean" Receipt System

Reimbursement can be a hurdle if your employer’s accounting department sees "Gift Card" on a receipt. We solve this by providing a "clean" receipt. Your documentation will reflect the total price of the "CME Course" or "CME Review Package," ensuring a smooth reimbursement process through your employer’s standard channels. You get the high-quality review material you need and the gift card for your educational supplies, all within a single professional transaction.

CME Gift Card Lifestyle

Product Spotlight: The New 3-Exam Practice Bundle

If you are looking for a focused way to test your readiness, our PANRE Review Questions Bundle is the most efficient tool available.

Unlike subscription-based platforms that lock you out once your payment expires, this bundle is delivered via Google Slides and Microsoft Word. You own the files.

  • 720 Total Questions: Divided into three 240-question simulations.
  • Self-Testing Format: The correct answer is revealed after the choices, preventing "passive recognition" and forcing genuine recall.
  • No Platform Dependency: Study anywhere, on any device, without needing a login or an active internet connection.

Practice Exam Bundle


CLINICAL VIGNETTES AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 1

Your patient is a 64-year-old male presenting with a 2-hour history of acute, tearing chest pain that radiates to his back. His medical history is significant for poorly controlled hypertension. Vital signs reveal a BP of 190/110 mmHg in the right arm and 160/95 mmHg in the left arm. HR is 105 bpm. A chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study of choice in a hemodynamically stable patient?

A. Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE)
B. Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE)
C. CT Angiography (CTA) of the chest and abdomen
D. Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)
E. Aortography

Correct Answer: C. CT Angiography (CTA) of the chest and abdomen.
CTA is the preferred initial imaging modality in stable patients suspected of having an aortic dissection due to its high sensitivity, specificity, and rapid availability. TEE (A) is highly accurate but more invasive and often reserved for unstable patients or when CTA is contraindicated. TTE (B) lacks sufficient sensitivity to rule out dissection. MRA (D) is highly accurate but takes significantly longer to perform and is less available in acute settings. Aortography (E) was once the gold standard but has been largely replaced by non-invasive cross-sectional imaging.

Question 2

Your patient is a 28-year-old female who presents for evaluation of a "lump" in her neck. She has no symptoms of hyper- or hypothyroidism. On physical exam, a 2 cm, firm, non-tender nodule is palpated in the right lobe of the thyroid. Lab results show a normal TSH level. An ultrasound confirms a solid, hypoechoic 2.2 cm nodule with irregular borders. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

A. Thyroid scintigraphy (Radioiodine uptake scan)
B. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy (FNAB)
C. Repeat ultrasound in 6 months
D. Total thyroidectomy
E. Start levothyroxine suppression therapy

Correct Answer: B. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy (FNAB).
In a patient with a thyroid nodule >1 cm and a normal TSH, FNAB is the standard next step to evaluate for malignancy, especially when suspicious ultrasound features (hypoechoic, irregular borders) are present. Thyroid scintigraphy (A) is indicated only if the TSH is low (to check for a "hot" functioning nodule). Repeating the ultrasound (C) is inappropriate for a nodule this size with suspicious features. Thyroidectomy (D) is premature without a tissue diagnosis. Levothyroxine suppression (E) is no longer a standard recommendation for the management of thyroid nodules.

Question 3

Your patient is a 45-year-old male with a history of alcohol use disorder who presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. On exam, he is tachycardic and has significant epigastric tenderness. Lipase is elevated to five times the upper limit of normal. You suspect acute pancreatitis. Which of the following findings at 48 hours is a component of the Ranson Criteria for predicting the severity of this condition?

A. Serum glucose > 200 mg/dL
B. Age > 55 years
C. WBC count > 16,000/mm³
D. Hematocrit drop > 10%
E. LDH > 350 IU/L

Correct Answer: D. Hematocrit drop > 10%.
Ranson Criteria are divided into findings at admission and findings during the initial 48 hours. A hematocrit drop of more than 10% within 48 hours is a key indicator of severity. Serum glucose (A), Age (B), WBC count (C), and LDH (E) are all components of the Ranson Criteria assessed at admission, not at the 48-hour mark. Other 48-hour criteria include a BUN increase > 5 mg/dL, serum calcium < 8 mg/dL, PaO2 < 60 mmHg, base deficit > 4 mEq/L, and estimated fluid sequestration > 6 L.

Question 4

Your patient is a 19-year-old male athlete who presents with sudden onset of right-sided pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea while at rest. He is tall and thin. Vital signs: HR 92 bpm, RR 20 bpm, SaO2 96% on room air. Physical exam reveals decreased breath sounds and hyperresonance to percussion on the right side. A chest X-ray shows a 15% (small) primary spontaneous pneumothorax. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Immediate needle decompression
B. Observation and repeat X-ray in 6 hours
C. Placement of a large-bore chest tube (28 French)
D. Pleurodesis
E. Emergent thoracotomy

Correct Answer: B. Observation and repeat X-ray in 6 hours.
For a small (<15-20%), primary spontaneous pneumothorax in a clinically stable patient, observation with supplemental oxygen is the standard initial approach. Many of these will resolve spontaneously. Needle decompression (A) is for tension pneumothorax. Large-bore chest tubes (C) are generally unnecessary for simple, small spontaneous pneumothoraxes; a pigtail catheter would be preferred if intervention was needed. Pleurodesis (D) and thoracotomy (E) are reserved for recurrent cases or those that fail to resolve with simpler measures.

Question 5

Your patient is a 72-year-old female with a history of atrial fibrillation who presents with sudden, severe periumbilical abdominal pain. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-distended, and her pain seems significantly out of proportion to the physical exam findings. She has had two episodes of forceful vomiting. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Small bowel obstruction
C. Acute mesenteric ischemia
D. Perforated peptic ulcer
E. Diverticulitis

Correct Answer: C. Acute mesenteric ischemia.
The hallmark of acute mesenteric ischemia is severe abdominal pain that is out of proportion to the physical exam findings, often in a patient with risk factors like atrial fibrillation (which can lead to embolic events). Cholecystitis (A) usually presents with RUQ pain and positive Murphy's sign. Small bowel obstruction (B) typically involves abdominal distention and high-pitched bowel sounds. Perforated ulcer (D) usually presents with a rigid, board-like abdomen. Diverticulitis (E) typically presents with LLQ pain and localized tenderness.


Choosing the right review course is about more than just checking a box for your recertification. It is about ensuring you have the highest-quality tools to maintain your clinical excellence. Our PANRE Review Course provides the comprehensive 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit you need, while our new 3-Exam Bundle offers the most realistic practice environment available today. Don’t leave your CME allowance unused: invest in your education and get the added value of an Amazon or Apple gift card today.

About the Author

Jeremy Boroff, PA-C — Emergency Medicine physician assistant with 24 years of clinical EM experience as a PA-C, plus an additional 7 years of experience as a Registered Respiratory Therapist. Author, PA educator, and CME developer — creator of the PANRE, PANCE, EOR, and specialty CME review courses at CME Review Courses.