Most physician assistants face a common end-of-year dilemma: a CME allowance that is about to expire. In 2026, the average CME allowance for PAs remains approximately $2,000 to $3,000. If you do not utilize these funds, they are typically forfeited back to your employer.
The most efficient way to maximize this benefit is by combining your required medical education with practical tools for your personal or professional life. We offer a system that allows you to add on Amazon or Apple gift cards ranging from $100 to $1500 to your CME purchase.
Logistical Details:
- Price: Courses start at $399.99 (add-ons extra)
- Access: 30 months for most packages
- Deliverables: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit (PANRE Course) or 720 practice questions (Exams Bundle)
- Receipts: Two separate receipts provided (Clean Receipt System)
The "Clean" Receipt System: Avoiding Reimbursement Hurdles
One of the biggest concerns for PAs when purchasing CME with a gift card add-on is employer reimbursement. Many HR departments or clinical managers may flag receipts that explicitly show a gift card purchase.
To solve this, we utilize a "Clean" Receipt System. When you purchase a package with a gift card add-on, we provide you with two separate receipts:
- Itemized Receipt: Shows the full breakdown, including the gift card add-on.
- Educational Receipt: Shows the total amount paid as an "Educational Course Fee" without mentioning the gift card.
This allows you to submit a professional, streamlined receipt for reimbursement that clearly justifies the total expenditure as an investment in your clinical education. Whether you choose the PANRE/PANRE-LA Review Exams or a specialty package like Neurology, your reimbursement process remains straightforward.
Choosing the Right Package for 2026
When selecting a course, you must prioritize the type of credit required for your certification cycle.
100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit
For PAs in a recertification cycle, the PANRE Review Course is the most robust option. It provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit. It is important to note that the NCCPA applies an additional 50% weighting to self-assessment credits. This means 100 hours can effectively count as 150 hours toward your requirements, significantly accelerating your progress.
PANRE/PANRE-LA Practice Exams
If you are specifically prepping for the new PANRE-LA format, you need realistic simulations. Our exam bundle includes:
- 720 total questions across 3 full-length exams.
- 5-answer multiple-choice format (matching the actual NCCPA format, unlike many 4-answer banks).
- Blueprint-matched distribution ensuring you aren't over-studying low-yield topics.
Pharmacology and Specialty CME
For those who do not need 100 hours but require focused updates, our Pharmacology Course provides AAPA Category 1 Credit specifically in pharmacotherapeutics. We also offer specialized content in:
- Dermatology
- Urgent Care
- Internal Medicine and Cardiology
Clinical Assessment: Dermatology
Patient Scenario:
Your patient is a 24-year-old female presenting with a sudden onset of a single, large, oval-shaped erythematous patch on her trunk, followed two days later by a "Christmas tree" distribution of smaller papules and scales across her back. She reports mild pruritus but is otherwise asymptomatic. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Her vitals are: BP 118/76, HR 72, RR 14, T 98.6°F.
Question:
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
A) Prescription for oral acyclovir
B) Application of high-potency topical steroids to the entire trunk
C) Reassurance and symptomatic treatment with antihistamines
D) Immediate punch biopsy of the herald patch
E) Referral to oncology for suspected Mycosis Fungoides
Explanation:
Correct Answer: C) Reassurance and symptomatic treatment with antihistamines.
This patient presents with the classic progression of Pityriasis Rosea. The initial large lesion is the "herald patch," typically followed by a secondary eruption in a Langer's line distribution (Christmas tree pattern). The condition is self-limiting and usually resolves within 6-12 weeks. Management is focused on patient education and managing pruritus with topical calamine lotion or oral antihistamines.
- A is incorrect because while some studies suggest acyclovir may shorten the duration, it is not the standard initial management for a healthy, mildly symptomatic patient.
- B is incorrect because high-potency steroids are unnecessary and can cause skin atrophy; low-to-medium potency may be used if itching is severe.
- D is incorrect as the clinical presentation is diagnostic, and a biopsy is not indicated unless the presentation is atypical or fails to resolve.
- E is incorrect because the acute onset and classic distribution do not suggest cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.
Clinical Assessment: Cardiology
Patient Scenario:
Your patient is a 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and Type 2 Diabetes who presents to the clinic for a routine follow-up. He reports recent episodes of lightheadedness and "feeling his heart skip a beat." On physical exam, his pulse is irregularly irregular. An ECG is performed and confirms atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 88 bpm. His vitals are: BP 134/82, HR 88 (irregular), SaO2 98% on room air.
Question:
Using the CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system, what is this patient's score and the recommended next step for stroke prevention?
A) Score of 1; Aspirin 81mg daily
B) Score of 2; No anticoagulation required
C) Score of 3; Initiation of a Direct Oral Anticoagulant (DOAC)
D) Score of 4; Initiation of Warfarin with a target INR of 2.5-3.5
E) Score of 5; Dual Antiplatelet Therapy (DAPT)
Explanation:
Correct Answer: C) Score of 3; Initiation of a Direct Oral Anticoagulant (DOAC).
The patient's CHA2DS2-VASc score is calculated as follows: Age 65-74 (1 point), Hypertension (1 point), and Diabetes Mellitus (1 point), for a total of 3. According to current guidelines, a score of 2 or greater in men (or 3 or greater in women) warrants oral anticoagulation to reduce the risk of thromboembolism.
- A and B are incorrect as they underestimate the score and the risk.
- C is the correct management, with DOACs (like Apixaban or Rivaroxaban) generally preferred over Warfarin unless the patient has mechanical heart valves or moderate-to-severe mitral stenosis.
- D is incorrect because Warfarin is no longer first-line for non-valvular AFib, and the target INR for standard AFib is 2.0-3.0.
- E is incorrect as DAPT is not indicated for stroke prevention in stable atrial fibrillation.
Final Thoughts on 2026 CME Planning
Maximizing your CME allowance requires a proactive approach. By utilizing the gift card add-on options, you can convert your employer-provided funds into versatile assets like Amazon or Apple credits while simultaneously fulfilling your AAPA Category 1 requirements.
Don't let your 2026 allowance go to waste. Use our clean receipt system to ensure your reimbursement is processed without delay, and gain lifetime access to high-yield clinical content written by PAs, for PAs.