Logistics: The Pharmacology CME Review Course is $399.99 for 30 months of access. It provides 12 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit and 120 detailed practice questions.
Selecting the right online pharmacology CME for PAs and NPs involves more than just checking a box for licensure requirements. It requires a course that bridges the gap between complex pharmacokinetics and real-world clinical application. For Physician Assistants (PAs) and Nurse Practitioners (NPs), finding a program that specifically offers AAPA Category 1 pharmacology credit is essential for meeting state-mandated prescriptive authority requirements.
Comparing Top Online Pharmacology CME Providers
When looking for online pharmacology CME for PAs, several providers offer content, but their focus varies between general nursing requirements and specialized PA practice.
| Provider | Focus | Credits | Pricing |
|---|---|---|---|
| CME Review Courses | PAs and NPs | 12 Hours AAPA Category 1 | $399.99 for 30 months |
| BoardVitals | Nursing/ANCC | 25 Contact Hours | ~$200 – $400 |
| Pri-Med | Primary Care | Variable | Subscription based |
| Mayo Clinic | Multi-specialty | Variable | High-cost live/on-demand |
1. CME Review Courses
This program is written by physician assistants specifically for physician assistants. While other platforms often cater to a general nursing audience (ANCC focus), our Pharmacology CME Review Course is tailored to the diagnostic and prescriptive needs of clinicians in Family Medicine, Emergency Medicine, and Hospitalist roles. It provides an efficient way to fulfill pharmacology requirements while allowing you to add on Amazon or Apple Gift Cards from $100 to $1,500 to your purchase. This maximizes your CME allowance by providing both education and tools to further your professional development.
2. BoardVitals
BoardVitals offers a robust question bank primarily targeted at Nurse Practitioners seeking ANCC Pharmacotherapeutics hours. While they provide excellent test prep, their content often lacks the PA-specific clinical vignettes found in a curriculum built by PAs. For those specifically needing AAPA Category 1 credit, verification of reciprocal credit is often required.
3. Pri-Med and Mayo Clinic
These providers offer high-quality evidence-based updates, but they often lack a consolidated "package" approach. Many PAs find that piecing together individual modules is time-consuming. In contrast, a 12-hour dedicated pharmacology block is much easier to track for NCCPA and state board audits.
Why "By PAs for PAs" Matters
The PANCE and PANRE exams, as well as the daily responsibilities of a PA, require a unique blend of medical knowledge and procedural skill. Most pharmacology courses on the market are adapted from MD-level programs or nursing-level CE. CME Review Courses provides content written by practicing PAs who understand the exact nuances of the NCCPA Blueprint.
If you are currently preparing for recertification, our PANRE Review Course provides 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit. This is the most efficient way to maintain your certification, as it covers everything from Cardiology to OB/GYN, including the pharmacologic management for each system.
Maximizing Your CME Budget with Gift Card Add-Ons
Many employers provide a fixed CME allowance that must be used by the end of the fiscal year. We offer CME with Gift Card packages that allow you to bundle your educational course with a $100 to $1,500 Amazon or Apple Gift Card.
This option allows you to purchase a high-quality pharmacology review and then use the gift card to buy medical equipment, textbooks, or technology like an iPad for clinical use. It is a pragmatic, real-world way to ensure none of your allotted education money goes to waste.
Clinical Assessment and Practice Questions
Logistics: Every course in our catalog includes detailed practice questions. The PANRE Review Course alone features over 1,600 board-style questions.
Question 1 [Cardiovascular System]
A 62-year-old man with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents to the emergency department with acute-onset tearing chest pain radiating to his back. His blood pressure is 210/120 mmHg in his right arm and 170/100 mmHg in his left arm. A CT angiogram reveals an intimal flap in the ascending aorta. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Initiate IV nitroprusside for blood pressure control
B. Emergent surgical repair
C. Start IV heparin and arrange for cardiac catheterization
D. Administer IV labetalol and observe in the ICU
E. Place an intra-aortic balloon pump
Correct Answer: B
A Stanford Type A aortic dissection (involving the ascending aorta) requires emergent surgical repair due to high mortality risk from complications such as tamponade, aortic rupture, or coronary malperfusion. Option A (nitroprusside alone) is incorrect because nitroprusside without a beta-blocker can cause reflex tachycardia and increased aortic shear stress, worsening the dissection. Option C (heparin and catheterization) is incorrect because anticoagulation is contraindicated in aortic dissection and catheterization delays definitive treatment. Option D (labetalol and observation) would be appropriate for a Type B dissection but is insufficient for Type A. Option E (intra-aortic balloon pump) is absolutely contraindicated as it could worsen the dissection or cause rupture.
Question 2 [Cardiovascular System]
A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive dyspnea, fatigue, and lower extremity edema over 6 months. She has no significant cardiac history. Echocardiography reveals four-chamber dilation with an ejection fraction of 20% and global hypokinesis. There is no significant valvular disease. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
C. Dilated cardiomyopathy
D. Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
E. Constrictive pericarditis
Correct Answer: C
Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and systolic dysfunction with global hypokinesis, consistent with this patient's echocardiographic findings and heart failure symptoms. Option A is incorrect because HCM features asymmetric septal hypertrophy and preserved systolic function. Option B is incorrect because it presents with diastolic dysfunction and non-dilated ventricles. Option D is incorrect because it typically presents acutely with apical ballooning after stress. Option E is incorrect because it causes diastolic dysfunction from a thickened pericardium, not ventricular dilation.
Question 3 [Cardiovascular System]
A 78-year-old man with a history of chronic atrial fibrillation presents with a syncopal episode. His ECG shows a ventricular rate of 32 bpm with no discernible P waves and a wide QRS complex with a regular R-R interval. Which of the following best explains this patient's presentation?
A. Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response
B. Complete (third-degree) AV block with a ventricular escape rhythm
C. Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) second-degree AV block
D. Sinus bradycardia with first-degree AV block
E. Atrial flutter with 4:1 conduction
Correct Answer: B
The combination of a very slow, regular ventricular rate (32 bpm) with a wide QRS in a patient with atrial fibrillation suggests complete AV block with a ventricular escape rhythm. The regularity indicates the ventricles are firing independently from an idioventricular pacemaker. Option A is incorrect as AFib with RVR is fast and irregular. Option C is incorrect because Wenckebach produces grouped beating and typically narrow QRS. Option D is incorrect because P waves would be present. Option E is incorrect because a 4:1 block at a typical flutter rate would yield a rate of ~75 bpm, not 32 bpm.