Price: $399.99 (Base Course)
Duration of Access: 30 Months
Deliverables: 100 Category 1 AAPA Credits, 1,672 Board-Style Questions
The landscape of Physician Assistant recertification changed significantly with the introduction of the PANRE-LA. Choosing between the traditional PANRE and the longitudinal assessment (PANRE-LA) requires an understanding of your personal testing strengths and clinical schedule. Regardless of which path you choose, high-yield preparation is necessary to maintain your PA-C certification.
At CME Review Courses, we provide a comprehensive PANRE Review Course designed to meet the requirements of both exam formats. Our program is built by physician assistants for physician assistants, ensuring the content is relevant to your clinical practice.
Traditional PANRE vs. PANRE-LA: The Breakdown
The Traditional PANRE is a high-stakes, four-hour exam administered in a single day at a Pearson VUE testing center. It consists of 240 multiple-choice questions. This format is often preferred by PAs who want to "get it over with" and have a high degree of confidence in their broad medical knowledge under timed conditions.
The PANRE-LA is a longitudinal assessment consisting of 25 questions every quarter over the course of 12 quarters (three years). You can complete the questions on your own device at any time during the quarter. This format is "open-book," meaning you can use clinical resources during the assessment. However, each question is timed (five minutes), so you must still have a strong foundational knowledge to navigate the materials efficiently.
Why Our Review Course Fits Both Formats
Whether you are cramming for a one-day exam or looking for a reliable resource to help you answer PANRE-LA questions quarterly, our course provides the depth required.
- 100 AAPA Category 1 CME Credits: The PANRE Review Course offers 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit. For NCCPA certification maintenance, these self-assessment credits are weighted at 1.5x, meaning you can satisfy a significant portion of your CME requirements with a single course.
- 1,672 Practice Questions: Exposure to a high volume of questions is the most effective way to prepare. Our database covers every organ system on the NCCPA blueprint, including Cardiology, Pulmonology, GI, and Emergency Medicine.
- 30-Month Access: With nearly three years of access, our course supports you through multiple years of the PANRE-LA cycle or provides an extended window for traditional PANRE prep.
Maximizing Your CME Budget with Gift Card Add-Ons
We offer a pragmatic solution for PAs who have annual CME stipends that must be used or lost. You can add an Amazon or Apple Gift Card ranging from $100 to $1,500 to your purchase.
One of the primary advantages of our system is the non-itemized receipt. When you purchase a CME package with a gift card add-on, your receipt will show a single total for "Educational Training" or "CME Course." This allows for a simplified reimbursement process through your employer, effectively allowing you to use your CME funds for both your education and the technology or resources you need to stay current in practice.
Clinical Review and Practice Questions
The following scenarios are designed to reflect the level of detail found in the PANRE and PANRE-LA assessments.
Scenario 1: Cardiovascular Medicine
Your patient is a 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and tobacco use who presents with a sudden onset of tearing chest pain radiating to his back. His blood pressure in the right arm is 185/105 mmHg and in the left arm is 155/90 mmHg. HR is 110 bpm. An EKG shows left ventricular hypertrophy but no acute ST-segment changes.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacological intervention?
A. Intravenous Nitroprusside
B. Intravenous Esmolol
C. Oral Amlodipine
D. Intravenous Hydralazine
Correct Answer: B. Intravenous Esmolol
In the setting of a suspected aortic dissection, the primary goal is to reduce heart rate and blood pressure to minimize "shear stress" on the aortic wall. A beta-blocker like Esmolol or Labetalol should be administered first to bring the heart rate below 60 bpm. Nitroprusside (Choice A) should only be added after heart rate control is achieved, as it can cause reflex tachycardia, which increases aortic wall stress. Oral medications (Choice C) are too slow for an acute dissection. Hydralazine (Choice D) can cause reflex tachycardia and is not the first-line agent here.
Scenario 2: Emergency Medicine / Pulmonary
Your patient is a 24-year-old female who was brought to the ED after a motor vehicle collision (MVC). She is complaining of significant right-sided chest pain and shortness of breath. On exam, she has decreased breath sounds on the right side and hyperresonance to percussion. Her BP is 88/54 mmHg, HR 125 bpm, and SaO2 is 88% on room air. You note tracheal deviation to the left.
What is the most immediate next step in management?
A. Obtain a portable chest X-ray
B. Perform a needle thoracostomy
C. Insert a chest tube (tube thoracostomy)
D. Perform an arterial blood gas (ABG)
Correct Answer: B. Perform a needle thoracostomy
The clinical presentation of hypotension, tachycardia, decreased breath sounds, and tracheal deviation is diagnostic of a tension pneumothorax. This is a clinical diagnosis that requires immediate decompression. You should not wait for an X-ray (Choice A) as the patient is hemodynamically unstable. While a chest tube (Choice C) is the definitive treatment, a needle thoracostomy (typically in the 2nd intercostal space at the midclavicular line or 4th/5th intercostal space at the anterior axillary line) is the fastest way to relieve pressure and stabilize the patient. An ABG (Choice D) would delay life-saving treatment.
Scenario 3: Dermatology
Your patient is a 32-year-old male presenting with a pruritic rash on his wrists and between his fingers. He reports the itching is significantly worse at night. On physical exam, you observe small, erythematous papules and linear tracks (burrows) in the interdigital webs.
What is the first-line treatment for this condition?
A. Oral Fluconazole
B. Topical Triamcinolone
C. Topical Permethrin 5% cream
D. Oral Cephalexin
Correct Answer: C. Topical Permethrin 5% cream
The description of nocturnal pruritus and linear burrows in the finger webs is classic for Scabies. The first-line treatment is Permethrin 5% cream, applied from the neck down and washed off after 8–14 hours. Fluconazole (Choice A) is for fungal infections. Triamcinolone (Choice B) is a steroid and would not treat the underlying mite infestation. Cephalexin (Choice D) is an antibiotic for bacterial infections, which might be used only if there was a secondary cellulitis from scratching.
Summary
The choice between Traditional PANRE and PANRE-LA depends on your schedule and testing preference. The CME Review Courses PANRE Package provides the 100 Category 1 AAPA credits you need, regardless of your chosen exam path. By utilizing the Amazon or Apple Gift Card options with a non-itemized receipt, you can efficiently use your CME funds to maximize both your education and your professional resources.