Price: $399.99 (Base Course)
Duration: 30 Months of Access
Deliverables: 100 AAPA Category 1 CME Credits, 1,672 Practice Questions
Preparation for the PANCE and PANRE requires a strategic approach to both medical knowledge acquisition and financial resource management. For physician assistants, the challenge is often finding a high-yield study resource that simultaneously satisfies professional continuing medical education requirements. The PANRE Review Course CME Package is designed to address both needs by providing a comprehensive review of the NCCPA Blueprint while offering a significant block of 100 AAPA Category 1 CME credits.
Maximizing Educational Budgets with Gift Card Add-Ons
One of the most efficient ways to utilize your annual CME allowance is by bundling your board review with educational tools that extend beyond the course material. CME Review Courses offers the ability to include an Amazon or Apple Gift Card add-on ranging from $100 to $1500 at the time of purchase.
It is important to understand that these gift cards are not free gifts. The cost of the selected gift card is added to the total price of the CME package. This structure allows clinicians to maximize their employer-sponsored educational funds in a single transaction. By adding a $1500 gift card to your 100-hour CME purchase, you can acquire necessary technology, medical equipment, or reference texts via Amazon or Apple, effectively optimizing your professional development budget.
High-Yield Content for the PANCE and PANRE
The PANRE Review Course focuses on the core competencies required for certification and recertification. While the course was developed by physician assistants for physician assistants, it has also become a valuable resource for nurse practitioners and physicians, though physicians should note the credit counts as Category 2 for their specific requirements.
The curriculum covers a broad range of medical specialties, including:
- Emergency Medicine
- Family Medicine
- Internal Medicine
- Orthopedics
- Dermatology
- Psychiatry
- Neurology
- Cardiology
- OB/GYN
For those focused specifically on the pharmacological aspects of these specialties, the Pharmacology Review CME course is available, although the 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit are specifically attributed to the comprehensive PANRE Review course.
Internal Medicine: A Core Component of the NCCPA Blueprint
Internal Medicine represents a significant portion of the NCCPA Blueprint. Mastery of complex multi-system disorders is essential for success on the PANCE/PANRE. Whether you are managing a patient with decompensated heart failure or navigating the complexities of chronic kidney disease, a systematic approach to diagnosis and management is required.
Below are clinical scenarios and practice questions designed to test your proficiency in Internal Medicine topics frequently encountered on board exams.
Clinical Assessment: Internal Medicine Case Studies
Scenario 1
Patient: 68-year-old male
Presentation: Progressive dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea for three weeks. The patient reports having to sleep propped up on three pillows. He has a history of hypertension and a myocardial infarction five years ago.
Physical Exam:
- BP: 155/92 mmHg
- HR: 98 bpm
- SaO2: 91% on room air
- Findings: Bibasilar rales on auscultation, 2+ pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and jugular venous distention (JVD) at 10 cm.
Question: What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Transthoracic Echocardiogram
C. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
D. Twelve-lead EKG
Scenario 2
Patient: 45-year-old female
Presentation: Fatigue, cold intolerance, and unintentional weight gain of 12 pounds over the last three months. She also reports constipation and dry skin.
Physical Exam:
- BP: 120/80 mmHg
- HR: 58 bpm (bradycardia)
- Findings: Delayed relaxation phase of the deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) and a palpable, non-tender thyroid.
Question: Which laboratory finding is most consistent with the primary form of this condition?
A. Elevated TSH, Low Free T4
B. Low TSH, Low Free T4
C. Elevated TSH, Elevated Free T4
D. Low TSH, Elevated Free T4
Scenario 3
Patient: 54-year-old male
Presentation: Acute onset of severe pain, redness, and swelling in the right first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint that began abruptly overnight. He reports a recent increase in alcohol consumption and a diet high in red meat.
Physical Exam:
- Findings: The right first MTP is erythematous, warm, and exquisitely tender to light touch.
Question: What is the definitive diagnostic procedure for this patient’s presentation?
A. Serum Uric Acid level
B. Radiography of the foot
C. Synovial fluid analysis via joint aspiration
D. C-reactive protein (CRP) level
Explanation and Answers
Scenario 1 Answer: B (Transthoracic Echocardiogram)
The correct answer is B. While a BNP (Choice C) can support the diagnosis and a Chest X-ray (Choice A) can identify pulmonary edema or cardiomegaly, the Transthoracic Echocardiogram is the gold standard for confirming heart failure by assessing the left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) and identifying structural abnormalities.
- Choice A (Chest X-ray): Useful for identifying congestion but does not provide functional cardiac data.
- Choice C (BNP): Excellent for ruling out heart failure in the ER (high negative predictive value) but is not definitive for determining the type or severity of cardiac dysfunction.
- Choice D (EKG): May show evidence of prior MI or LVH but does not confirm heart failure.
Scenario 2 Answer: A (Elevated TSH, Low Free T4)
The correct answer is A. Primary hypothyroidism, most commonly caused by Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, presents with an Elevated TSH and a Low Free T4. The pituitary gland increases TSH production in an attempt to stimulate the failing thyroid gland.
- Choice B (Low TSH, Low Free T4): Indicates secondary (central) hypothyroidism, usually involving the pituitary gland or hypothalamus.
- Choice C and D: Reflect states of hyperthyroidism or thyroid hormone resistance, which do not match the clinical presentation of cold intolerance and bradycardia.
Scenario 3 Answer: C (Synovial fluid analysis via joint aspiration)
The correct answer is C. The definitive diagnosis of gout is made by performing a synovial fluid analysis, which will reveal negatively birefringent needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals under polarized light microscopy.
- Choice A (Serum Uric Acid): This is often misleading; serum uric acid can be normal or even low during an acute gouty attack.
- Choice B (Radiography): X-rays usually only show chronic changes (e.g., "punched out" erosions) and are not helpful for diagnosing an acute first-time attack.
- Choice D (CRP): A non-specific marker of inflammation that does not differentiate between gout, pseudogout, or septic arthritis.
Integrating Educational Tools into Your Practice
Staying current with the NCCPA Blueprint is a career-long commitment. By utilizing high-quality PANCE prep courses, you ensure that your clinical knowledge remains sharp. The added flexibility of cme gift cards means you can invest in the hardware or software you need to stay organized, whether that’s a new iPad for clinical rotations or noise-canceling headphones for your 100-hour study sessions.
The PANRE Review Course is structured to be the most efficient use of both your time and your CME budget. With 30 months of access, you can revisit specific topics like Dermatology, Neurology, or Orthopedics at any time during your recertification cycle.
Conclusion
Whether you are a new graduate preparing for the PANCE or a seasoned PA-C tackling the PANRE, the CME Review Courses platform provides the necessary tools for success. By combining 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit with the ability to add Amazon or Apple gift cards ($100-$1500) to your purchase, you maximize the utility of your professional allowance while preparing for your high-stakes exams.