Navigating the world of Continuing Medical Education (CME) can be a logistical hurdle, especially when you are trying to maximize your annual employer-provided allowance. Many PAs look for a CME with gift card option to get the most value out of their professional development funds. However, a common roadblock is the reimbursement process.
At CME Review Courses, we have streamlined this process. We provide a dual-receipt system specifically designed for PAs who need a CME. We routinely send receipts with and without the gift card listed. There is an example here. Non Itemized Receipt
The Logistics: What You Get
- Price: Packages range from $1,000 to $1500 depending on the gift card value.
- Deliverables: 100 AAPA Category 1 Credits (applicable to our comprehensive PANRE Review).
- Access: 30of 24/7 online access.
- Bonus: Amazon or Apple gift cards ranging from $100 to $1,500.
The Reimbursement Dilemma
Most hospital systems and private practices provide a set amount of money each year for your education. When you purchase a PANRE review course that includes an incentive, the total price often reflects both the educational content and the added value.
Our Dual-Receipt Solution
We understand the administrative burden placed on healthcare providers. To make your reimbursement as smooth as possible, we automatically provide two separate receipts for every purchase involving an incentive:
- The Itemized Receipt: This receipt lists everything. It shows the PANRE review course, the credits earned, and the specific gift card amount. This is for your personal records and tax documentation.
- The Non Itemized CME Receipt: This is the receipt most of our customers use for employer reimbursement. It lists the total price as a single educational expense for the "100 AAPA Category 1 Credit PANRE Review Course Package." On this version, the gift card is not listed on the receipt.
View a Sample Receipt
Transparency is key to how we operate. If you want to see exactly what your documentation will look like before you buy, you can view our Sample Receipt here.
Why Choose the 100-Hour PANRE Review?
While the gift card is a great perk, the core of our offering is high-yield clinical education. The PANRE Review course is designed to help you maintain your certification with minimal stress. By offering 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit, we allow you to fulfill your entire two-year requirement in a single, comprehensive program.
Our curriculum is mapped directly to the NCCPA blueprint, focusing on the "must-know" topics that appear most frequently on the exam. We skip the fluff and focus on clinical pearls, diagnostic "gold standards," and first-line treatments.
High-Yield Clinical Review: Practice Questions
To help you get into the mindset for your upcoming recertification, here are five high-yield practice questions focusing on Cardiology and Internal Medicine.
Question 1
Your patient is a 67-year-old male with a history of hypertension and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who presents for a routine follow-up. During the exam, you note an irregularly irregular pulse. An EKG confirms Atrial Fibrillation with a heart rate of 92 bpm. The patient is currently asymptomatic and denies chest pain, shortness of breath, or lightheadedness. His CHA2DS2-VASc score is calculated to be 3. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of his stroke risk?
A. Aspirin 81 mg daily
B. Clopidogrel 75 mg daily
C. Initiation of Apixaban (Eliquis)
D. No anticoagulation is necessary at this time
Correct Answer: C. Initiation of Apixaban (Eliquis)
Explanation: For a male patient with a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 or greater (this patient is 3), oral anticoagulation is recommended to reduce the risk of thromboembolic stroke. Direct Oral Anticoagulants (DOACs) like Apixaban or Rivaroxaban are generally preferred over Warfarin unless the patient has mechanical heart valves or moderate-to-severe mitral stenosis. Aspirin and Clopidogrel are not sufficient for stroke prevention in Atrial Fibrillation.
Question 2
Your patient is a 54-year-old female with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus and Stage 3a Chronic Kidney Disease (eGFR 48 mL/min/1.73 m²). She is currently taking Metformin 1,000 mg twice daily. Her latest HbA1c is 7.8%. You decide to add a second agent that has proven cardiovascular and renal benefits. Which of the following is the best choice?
A. Glipizide (Glucotrol)
B. Empagliflozin (Jardiance)
C. Pioglitazone (Actos)
D. Sitagliptin (Januvia)
Correct Answer: B. Empagliflozin (Jardiance)
Explanation: SGLT2 inhibitors, such as Empagliflozin, are highly recommended for patients with Type 2 Diabetes and CKD or heart failure because they reduce the risk of CKD progression and cardiovascular events. While Metformin can be continued as long as the eGFR is above 30, the addition of an SGLT2 inhibitor is the gold standard for renal protection. Sulfonylureas like Glipizide do not provide these extra-glycemic benefits and carry a higher risk of hypoglycemia.
Question 3
Your patient is a 72-year-old male presenting with increased peripheral edema, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. On physical exam, you note jugular venous distension (JVD) and a displaced apical impulse. An echocardiogram reveals an ejection fraction of 30%. He is currently taking Lisinopril and Furosemide. Which of the following medications, when added to his regimen, has been shown to provide a significant mortality benefit in patients with Heart Failure with reduced Ejection Fraction (HFrEF)?
A. Amlodipine
B. Digoxin
C. Carvedilol
D. Isosorbide mononitrate
Correct Answer: C. Carvedilol
Explanation: Beta-blockers (specifically Carvedilol, Metoprolol Succinate, or Bisoprolol) are one of the cornerstones of HFrEF management and have clear mortality benefits. They should be initiated in stable patients once fluid overload is improved. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used for BP control but has no mortality benefit in HF. Digoxin helps with symptoms and reduces hospitalizations but does not improve survival.
Question 4
Your patient is a 32-year-old female complaining of palpitations, heat intolerance, and a 10-pound weight loss over the last month despite an increased appetite. On exam, her heart rate is 112 bpm, and she has a noticeable fine tremor of her hands. Labs show a TSH of <0.01 uIU/mL and an elevated Free T4. A radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU) scan shows diffuse, increased uptake throughout the thyroid gland. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Subacute Thyroiditis
B. Graves’ Disease
C. Toxic Multinodular Goiter
D. Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Correct Answer: B. Graves’ Disease
Explanation: Graves’ disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism and is characterized by diffuse, increased uptake on an RAIU scan. Subacute thyroiditis typically shows very low or "patchy" uptake due to the release of preformed hormones from a damaged gland. Toxic multinodular goiter would show focal areas of increased uptake ("hot nodules") with suppressed uptake in the rest of the gland.
Question 5
Your patient is a 58-year-old male who presents to the emergency department with crushing substernal chest pain that began 45 minutes ago. The pain radiates to his left jaw. His vitals are BP 145/90 mmHg, HR 98 bpm, and SaO2 96% on room air. An EKG shows 3mm ST-segment elevation in leads V2, V3, and V4. The nearest hospital with a cardiac catheterization lab is 2 hours away. What is the most appropriate initial management step?
A. Wait for troponin results before starting treatment
B. Administer 324 mg of chewed Aspirin and initiate fibrinolytic therapy
C. Administer Nitroglycerin and wait for the pain to subside
D. Transfer the patient immediately without any pharmacological intervention
Correct Answer: B. Administer 324 mg of chewed Aspirin and initiate fibrinolytic therapy
Explanation: This patient is having an anterior STEMI. The goal for reperfusion is PCI within 90 minutes. If the "door-to-balloon" time is expected to be greater than 120 minutes, fibrinolytic therapy (like Alteplase or Tenecteplase) should be administered within 30 minutes of arrival at the non-PCI facility, provided there are no contraindications. Aspirin should be given immediately to all patients with suspected ACS.
Conclusion
Securing your CME with gift card shouldn't be a source of stress. By choosing a provider that understands the nuances of hospital reimbursement, you can focus on what matters: earning your AAPA Category 1 Credit and staying sharp for your PANRE review.
Check out our full range of courses at CME Review Courses and get your credits (and your gift card) today.