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7 Days Left: How to Spend Your 2026 CME Stipend Before June 30th

The 2026 fiscal mid-year deadline is approaching rapidly. For many physician assistants and nurse practitioners, June 30th marks the expiration of annual CME stipends. Funds not utilized by midnight on this date are often forfeited, representing a lost opportunity for professional development and educational enrichment.

At CME Review Courses, we provide a streamlined, high-yield solution to ensure your employer-provided funds are maximized before the clock runs out. Our programs are designed by physician assistants for physician assistants, ensuring clinical relevance and efficiency.

Course Logistics and Deliverables:

  • PANRE Review Course: $800 – $2,500 (depending on gift card add-on selection).
  • Pharmacology Course: $600 – $2,000 (depending on gift card add-on selection).
  • CME Credits: 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit (PANRE Review).
  • Access Duration: 12 months of unlimited access from the date of purchase.
  • Deliverables: Comprehensive video modules, digital study materials, and a robust question bank.
  • Incentives: Amazon or Apple Gift Card add-ons ranging from $100 to $1,500.

Maximizing the June 30th Deadline

The urgency of the June 30th deadline cannot be overstated. Clinical departments typically operate on a "use it or lose it" policy regarding educational stipends. If you have a remaining balance of $500, $1,000, or even $2,500, purchasing a comprehensive review course today ensures those funds are converted into long-term educational value rather than being returned to the hospital's general fund.

Our platform allows for immediate enrollment. Upon purchase, you receive an itemized confirmation suitable for clinical reimbursement systems. This allows you to secure your 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit for the PANRE Review well in advance of your next recertification cycle.

Professional desk with education materials and gift card rewards

The PANRE Review: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit

The PANRE Review Course is our flagship offering for physician assistants approaching their recertification exam or those looking for a comprehensive clinical refresh. This course is specifically designed to cover the high-yield topics identified by the NCCPA.

Core Content Areas Include:

  • Cardiology: Management of ACS, valvular heart disease, and advanced EKG interpretation.
  • Pulmonology: Focus on obstructive vs. restrictive lung disease and current GOLD criteria for COPD.
  • Orthopedics: Clinical evaluation of common fractures, dislocations, and rheumatological emergencies.
  • Dermatology: Identification of malignant versus benign lesions and therapeutic management of common rashes.
  • Emergency Medicine: Triage, resuscitation protocols, and acute trauma management.
  • Internal Medicine: Comprehensive review of hospitalist medicine, including electrolyte imbalances and infectious disease protocols.

This course provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 CME credit. This is the most efficient way to satisfy a massive portion of your two-year NCCPA requirement in a single purchase. While primarily designed for PAs, Internal Medicine Physicians and Nurse Practitioners have frequently utilized this course for Category 2 credit or state-specific CE requirements.

PANRE Review Exam Book Cover

The Pharmacology Course: Targeted AAPA Credit

For those who have already satisfied their general CME requirements but need targeted pharmacology hours, our Pharmacology Course is the ideal solution. This course focuses on modern pharmacotherapeutics, drug interactions, and the latest FDA-approved medications across various specialties.

Like the PANRE course, this also qualifies for AAPA Category 1 Credit. It is particularly valuable for Nurse Practitioners who require a specific number of pharmacology-specific continuing education hours for license renewal in many states.

The Incentive: Amazon and Apple Gift Card Add-ons

We recognize that the cost of high-quality medical education often leaves a surplus in clinical stipends. To help you further enrich your professional life, we offer the option to bundle your CME purchase with an Amazon or Apple Gift Card.

Purchasers can select add-ons ranging from $100 to $1,500. This allows you to use your CME funds to acquire the hardware (such as an iPad for mobile clinical reference) or the textbooks (via Amazon) needed to support your practice. The total price of the package includes both the educational content and the gift card, making it a comprehensive use of your 2026 allowance.

Comprehensive Guide to EKGs Book Cover

Clinical Assessment: Practice Questions

To maintain clinical proficiency, every PA must be able to navigate complex patient presentations. Below are several practice scenarios modeled after the NCCPA format.

Scenario 1: Cardiology

Your patient is a 64-year-old male presenting to the emergency department with acute onset of crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left jaw. He is diaphoretic and nauseated. Vital signs show a BP of 105/65 mmHg, HR 98 bpm, and SaO2 94% on room air. An EKG is performed immediately, showing 3mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.

What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A) Obtain a Stat Chest X-ray to rule out aortic dissection
B) Administer 324mg of Aspirin and activate the cardiac catheterization lab
C) Start a Heparin drip and admit to the ICU for observation
D) Perform a bedside D-dimer to evaluate for pulmonary embolism

Answer: B. Administer 324mg of Aspirin and activate the cardiac catheterization lab.
The EKG findings (ST-elevation in II, III, aVF) are diagnostic of an inferior wall Myocardial Infarction (STEMI). Standard of care mandates rapid reperfusion therapy, preferably via Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) within 90 minutes of arrival. Aspirin is the first-line antiplatelet therapy. While a Chest X-ray (Choice A) is often part of the workup, it must not delay transport to the cath lab. Admit and observe (Choice C) is inappropriate for an active STEMI, and D-dimer (Choice D) is irrelevant in the presence of clear EKG evidence of ischemia.

Scenario 2: Orthopedics

Your patient is a 22-year-old female athlete who felt a "pop" in her right knee while pivoting during a soccer match. She experienced immediate swelling and an inability to bear weight. On physical exam, the Lachman test is positive with significant anterior translation of the tibia compared to the femur.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Medial Meniscus Tear
B) Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) Rupture
C) Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL) Sprain
D) Patellar Tendon Rupture

Answer: B. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) Rupture.
The clinical history of a "pop" during a non-contact pivoting injury followed by immediate effusion is classic for an ACL tear. The Lachman test is the most sensitive physical exam maneuver for confirming anterior instability. Meniscus tears (Choice A) typically present with locking or catching and delayed swelling. MCL sprains (Choice C) are usually caused by a valgus stress and present with medial joint line tenderness. Patellar tendon rupture (Choice D) would result in a superiorly displaced patella and an inability to perform a straight leg raise.

Family Medicine Review Book Cover

Scenario 3: Dermatology

Your patient is a 45-year-old male who presents with a "changing mole" on his upper back. He notes the lesion has become darker and has developed irregular borders over the last six months. On inspection, you observe a 7mm asymmetrical plaque with variegated colors including dark brown, black, and a hint of blue.

What is the most appropriate definitive management for this lesion?

A) Cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen
B) Application of topical Imiquimod for 6 weeks
C) Excisional biopsy with 1-3 mm margins
D) Shave biopsy of the darkest area

Answer: C. Excisional biopsy with 1-3 mm margins.
The description is highly suspicious for Malignant Melanoma (ABCDE criteria: Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variegation, Diameter >6mm, Evolution). The gold standard for diagnosis and initial management is a full-thickness excisional biopsy. Shave biopsies (Choice D) are contraindicated for suspected melanoma as they may transect the lesion and prevent accurate Breslow depth measurement, which is the most important prognostic factor. Cryotherapy (Choice A) and topical treatments (Choice B) are inappropriate for suspected malignancy.

Secure Your Credits Before the Midnight Deadline

The clock is ticking toward June 30th. Don't let your hard-earned CME stipend expire. By choosing CME Review Courses, you secure the high-quality PANRE Review Course or the pharmacology hours you need, while also taking advantage of our CME with Gift Card bundles.

Invest in your clinical knowledge and your career today. With 12 months of access, you can learn at your own pace and be fully prepared for your next exam or patient encounter.

About the Author

Jeremy Boroff, PA-C — Emergency Medicine physician assistant with 24 years of clinical EM experience as a PA-C, plus an additional 7 years of experience as a Registered Respiratory Therapist. Author, PA educator, and CME developer — creator of the PANRE, PANCE, EOR, and specialty CME review courses at CME Review Courses.