Price: Starting at $495.00
Duration: 1-Year Access
Deliverables: 100 Category 1 AAPA Credits, 1,000+ Board-Style Practice Questions, and Comprehensive Course Material.
Preparing for the Physician Assistant National Recertification Exam (PANRE) or the PANRE-LA (Longitudinal Assessment) is a significant undertaking that requires more than just clinical experience. Many Physician Assistants approach their recertification with strategies that worked for them a decade ago or, worse, with no strategy at all. This inefficiency often leads to wasted study hours, out-of-pocket expenses, and missed opportunities to satisfy CME requirements.
Our PANRE Review Course is specifically designed to address these pitfalls while providing a massive boost to your professional requirements. By avoiding the following three common mistakes, you can streamline your preparation and maximize the value of your CME budget.
Mistake #1: Relying Solely on Clinical Experience
The most common error PAs make is assuming that daily clinical practice in a specialty: such as Orthopedics or Cardiology: is sufficient to pass a generalist exam. The PANRE is based on the NCCPA Blueprint, which covers the entire spectrum of medicine. If you spend your days treating fractures, your knowledge of OB/GYN or Psychiatry may have naturally regressed.
Board questions are written to test standardized diagnostic criteria and "gold standard" treatments, which may differ from the "real world" shortcuts or specific protocols used in your local hospital. Studying without a structured review of the NCCPA Blueprint leaves you vulnerable to gaps in high-yield areas like Internal Medicine and Family Medicine. Our course ensures you hit every required topic area, ensuring no domain is neglected.
Mistake #2: Leaving CME Credits on the Table
PAs are required to earn 100 CME credits every two years, including at least 50 Category 1 credits. A frequent mistake is purchasing a pance prep course or review material that provides minimal or no credit, forcing you to find and pay for additional CME later in the cycle.
When you choose our 100-hour PANRE Review Course, you satisfy your entire Category 1 requirement in a single purchase. This course offers 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit, which is an efficient use of both your time and your employer’s CME stipend. It is important to note that while our Pharmacology course also provides Category 1 AAPA credit, the full 100-hour credit designation is specific to the PANRE Review package.
Mistake #3: Poor Financial Management of Your CME Stipend
Many PAs wait until the end of the year to spend their CME money, often rushing to buy books or small courses that don't maximize their benefits. One of the most effective ways to use your professional allowance is by utilizing cme gift cards.
We offer an efficient way to use your CME money by allowing the purchase of CME with Amazon and Apple Gift Card add-ons. These are not "free gifts"; they are optional add-ons ranging from $100 to $1,500 that are added to the total cost of your CME purchase. This allows you to further enrich your education by purchasing necessary hardware (like an iPad for mobile studying) or supplemental textbooks through Amazon. By bundling these into your initial purchase, you ensure your full stipend is utilized effectively for your professional development.
Clinical Assessment: Practice Questions
Test your knowledge with these clinical vignettes. This format mirrors the types of integrative reasoning required for the PANRE.
Question 1
Your patient is a 45-year-old male presenting with a 2-day history of a painful, swollen left great toe. He denies trauma. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical exam reveals erythema, warmth, and exquisite tenderness at the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Arthrocentesis is performed, and synovial fluid analysis shows negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment for this acute presentation?
A) Allopurinol
B) Indomethacin
C) Probenecid
D) Febuxostat
Explanation: The correct answer is Indomethacin (or other NSAIDs). The clinical presentation and synovial fluid analysis (negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals) are diagnostic of acute gouty arthritis. NSAIDs, corticosteroids, or colchicine are the first-line treatments for acute flares. Allopurinol, Probenecid, and Febuxostat are urate-lowering therapies used for chronic management and should not be initiated during an acute flare as they can exacerbate symptoms.
Question 2
Your patient is a 28-year-old female at 32 weeks gestation who presents with a sudden onset of painless vaginal bleeding. She denies contractions or trauma. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and fetal heart tones are reactive at 140 bpm. An ultrasound reveals the placenta is covering the internal cervical os. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Digital vaginal exam
B) Pelvic rest and monitoring
C) Immediate Cesarean delivery
D) Oxytocin induction
Explanation: The correct answer is Pelvic rest and monitoring. This patient has placenta previa. Digital vaginal exams are strictly contraindicated as they can cause massive hemorrhage. Since the patient and fetus are currently stable, the management involves pelvic rest and observation. Immediate Cesarean delivery is indicated if there is maternal or fetal distress or if the pregnancy is at term.
Question 3
Your patient is a 62-year-old male with a history of hypertension and tobacco use who presents to the ER with sudden-onset, "tearing" chest pain radiating to the back. His BP is 190/110 mmHg in the right arm and 160/90 mmHg in the left arm. A chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. What is the definitive diagnostic study for this condition?
A) EKG
B) Transthoracic Echocardiogram
C) CT Angiography of the Chest
/D) Troponin level
Explanation: The correct answer is CT Angiography of the Chest. The "tearing" pain radiating to the back, blood pressure discrepancy between arms, and widened mediastinum are classic for aortic dissection. CT Angiography (CTA) or Transesophageal Echocardiogram (TEE) are the definitive imaging modalities. EKG and Troponins are useful to rule out MI but will not diagnose a dissection.
Question 4
Your patient is a 12-year-old male brought in by his mother for a "barking" cough and inspiratory stridor that began last night. He has a low-grade fever and rhinorrhea. On exam, he appears mildly distressed but is not drooling. A neck X-ray shows subglottic narrowing (steeple sign). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Epiglottitis
B) Laryngotracheobronchitis (Croup)
C) Retropharyngeal abscess
D) Bacterial tracheitis
Explanation: The correct answer is Laryngotracheobronchitis (Croup). The barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and "steeple sign" on X-ray are classic findings for Croup, typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Epiglottitis would present with a more toxic appearance, high fever, and drooling (thumbprint sign).
Question 5
Your patient is a 34-year-old female presenting with a "butterfly" rash across her malar eminences, joint pain in her hands, and fatigue. Laboratory testing reveals a positive ANA and anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies. Which of the following is the most appropriate maintenance therapy for this patient?
A) Hydroxychloroquine
B) High-dose Prednisone
C) Methotrexate
D) Cyclophosphamide
Explanation: The correct answer is Hydroxychloroquine. This patient meets the criteria for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE). Hydroxychloroquine is the cornerstone of maintenance therapy, as it reduces flares and improves long-term survival. Prednisone is used for acute flares, and Methotrexate or Cyclophosphamide are reserved for more severe or organ-threatening disease.
Avoid the common mistakes of under-studying the NCCPA Blueprint or letting your CME funds go to waste. Our PANRE Review Course provides the structure, the questions, and the Category 1 credits you need to succeed.
