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Commit to the Answer: The Best PANRE Practice Exam for Real Results

Product: PANRE Review Exam 1
Deliverables: 240-question practice examination with comprehensive explanations
Format: Ebook/Print via Amazon or Digital via CME Review Courses
Access: Permanent ownership; no subscription or login required
CME Credit: 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit available through the full PANRE Review Course

Preparing for the Physician Assistant National Recertification Exam (PANRE) or the PANRE-LA requires a shift from passive reading to active clinical reasoning. Most question banks encourage "answer-peeking" by displaying the correct choice immediately, which bypasses the cognitive effort required for long-term retention. PANRE Review Exam 1 is engineered to eliminate this habit. It provides a full-length, 240-question mock exam designed to mirror the actual testing environment of the NCCPA.

This resource is written by physician assistants for physician assistants. It prioritizes high-yield clinical facts and evidence-based medicine over esoteric details. Whether you are a seasoned PA-C or nearing your first recertification cycle, this exam provides the diagnostic and management scenarios you will encounter on test day.

The Active Recall Advantage

Active Recall

Passive study methods, such as highlighting text or rereading notes, offer a false sense of mastery. Real mastery is built through retrieval practice. The format of this exam forces you to commit to an answer before the correct choice and explanation are revealed.

Each question follows a 5-answer multiple-choice format, consistent with the NCCPA standard. By committing to an answer before checking the key, you engage the neural pathways responsible for recall. When a mistake is made, the subsequent correction is more likely to be retained. This "forced recall" method is particularly effective for the longitudinal assessment format (PANRE-LA), where speed and accuracy are paramount across various clinical systems.

Precise NCCPA Blueprint Alignment

Organ Systems

Success on the PANRE depends on studying the right topics in the right proportions. PANRE Review Exam 1 is mapped directly to the NCCPA Blueprint categories. You will not find a skewed distribution of questions; instead, the 240 items are allocated based on the weight of each organ system as defined for the 2025 exam cycle.

The question distribution for Exam 1 is as follows:

  • Cardiovascular: 26 questions
  • Pulmonary: 22 questions
  • Gastrointestinal/Nutrition: 19 questions
  • Musculoskeletal: 19 questions
  • Infectious Diseases: 17 questions
  • Neurology: 17 questions
  • Psychiatry/Behavioral Science: 17 questions
  • Reproductive: 17 questions
  • Endocrine: 14 questions
  • EENT: 14 questions
  • Professional Practice: 14 questions
  • Hematology: 12 questions
  • Renal: 12 questions
  • Dermatology: 10 questions
  • Genitourinary: 10 questions

This is Exam 1 of a 3-exam series. Utilizing all three exams provides a total of 720 blueprint-aligned questions, offering comprehensive coverage of all 15 organ systems.

Strategic CME Spending with Gift Card Add-ons

CME Gift Card

Physician assistants often have fixed annual CME allowances. We provide an efficient way to utilize these funds. Through cmereviewcourses.com, you can purchase CME packages that include Amazon or Apple gift card add-ons ranging from $100 to $1500. This allows you to secure high-yield educational materials while simultaneously acquiring the tools: such as tablets, medical equipment, or reference books: needed to further your clinical practice.

While our content is highly valued by nurse practitioners and physicians, note that AAPA Category 1 Credit for nurse practitioners is subject to state-specific regulations. For physicians, this content typically qualifies for Category 2 CME credit.

Clinical Assessment Practice Questions

The following scenarios represent the level of clinical complexity found in PANRE Review Exam 1. Use these to test your current knowledge.

Question 1

Your patient is a 54-year-old male with a history of hypertension and tobacco use who presents to the clinic with complaints of progressive exertional dyspnea and a non-productive cough. Physical examination reveals fine bibasilar inspiratory crackles and clubbing of the fingers. High-resolution CT (HRCT) of the chest demonstrates subpleural reticular opacities and honeycombing, primarily in the lower lobes. Pulmonary function testing (PFT) shows a restrictive pattern with a reduced DLCO. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Sarcoidosis
B) Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF)
C) Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
D) Asbestosis
E) Congestive Heart Failure

Correct Answer: B) Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF)
IPF is the correct diagnosis based on the clinical presentation of progressive dyspnea, finger clubbing, and the classic HRCT finding of "honeycombing" and subpleural reticulation in the lower lobes. PFTs in IPF typically show a restrictive pattern (decreased FVC, normal FEV1/FVC ratio) and a decreased DLCO. Sarcoidosis usually presents with hilar lymphadenopathy and non-caseating granulomas. Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis typically involves an identifiable environmental exposure and centrilobular nodules on CT. Asbestosis would require a significant occupational history and often shows pleural plaques. Congestive Heart Failure would present with cardiomegaly, Kerley B lines, and symptoms like orthopnea.

Question 2

Your patient is a 29-year-old female, G1P0 at 34 weeks gestation, who presents to the labor and delivery unit with a headache, blurry vision, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 164/112 mmHg. Urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. AST and ALT are twice the upper limit of normal, and her platelet count is 88,000/µL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Outpatient monitoring with weekly NSTs
B) Immediate delivery via Cesarean section
C) Administration of Magnesium Sulfate and preparation for delivery
D) Oral Labetalol and discharge home with follow-up in 24 hours
E) Bed rest and repeat labs in 48 hours

Correct Answer: C) Administration of Magnesium Sulfate and preparation for delivery
The correct management is Magnesium Sulfate for seizure prophylaxis and proceeding toward delivery. This patient meets the criteria for Preeclampsia with Severe Features (BP >160/110, headache, visual changes, epigastric pain, and thrombocytopenia). At 34 weeks, the definitive treatment for severe preeclampsia is delivery. Outpatient monitoring or bed rest is contraindicated in severe preeclampsia due to the risk of maternal and fetal morbidity. Immediate Cesarean is not necessarily required; induction of labor is often preferred unless there are other obstetric indications for surgery. Oral Labetalol alone is insufficient and discharging the patient is dangerous.

Question 3

Your patient is a 62-year-old male presenting with sudden onset of severe "tearing" chest pain that radiates to the back between the scapulae. On examination, he is diaphoretic with a blood pressure of 185/105 mmHg in the right arm and 155/90 mmHg in the left arm. A chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?

A) Transthoracic Echocardiogram (TTE)
B) CT Angiography (CTA) of the chest and abdomen
C) Exercise Stress Test
D) Cardiac Catheterization
E) D-dimer assay

Correct Answer: B) CT Angiography (CTA) of the chest and abdomen
CT Angiography is the preferred initial diagnostic test for suspected aortic dissection in a hemodynamically stable patient due to its high sensitivity and ability to delineate the extent of the dissection. The presentation of "tearing" pain and a blood pressure discrepancy between arms is classic for aortic dissection. TTE is often insufficient to visualize the descending aorta; a Transesophageal Echocardiogram (TEE) would be more sensitive but is more invasive. Stress testing is contraindicated in acute chest pain of this nature. Cardiac Catheterization might be used to evaluate coronaries but is not the initial test for dissection. D-dimer is non-specific and should not delay imaging when clinical suspicion is high.

Preparation Summary

PA Studying

The journey to recertification does not have to be an overwhelming process of trial and error. By utilizing a blueprint-aligned, active recall-based practice exam, you can identify knowledge gaps and refine your clinical reasoning before the stakes are high.

PANRE Review Exam 1 is available for purchase today. You can find the printed or ebook version directly on Amazon. For those looking to maximize their CME allowance with gift card add-ons, visit CME Review Courses to explore our full suite of PANRE and Pharmacology review options.

Invest in your education effectively. Commit to the answer, master the blueprint, and secure your recertification.

About the Author

Jeremy Boroff, PA-C — Emergency Medicine physician assistant with 24 years of clinical EM experience as a PA-C, plus an additional 7 years of experience as a Registered Respiratory Therapist. Author, PA educator, and CME developer — creator of the PANRE, PANCE, EOR, and specialty CME review courses at CME Review Courses.