The Ultimate Guide to PANRE Review: Everything You Need to Pass Without the Stress

Maintaining your NCCPA certification requires a strategic approach to both clinical knowledge and credit accumulation. For Physician Assistants approaching their recertification window, the PANRE Review Course provides a comprehensive solution designed to meet regulatory requirements while streamlining the study process. This course is specifically developed by PAs for PAs, ensuring the content is clinically relevant and focused on the high-yield topics encountered in practice and on the exam.

Course Details:

• Price: $399.99
• Duration of Access: 30 Months
• CME Credits: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment Credit
• Deliverables: 1,672 board-style review questions with detailed explanations and 17 hours of clinical video content.
• Bonus: NCCPA applies a 50% bonus to self-assessment credits, meaning this 100-hour course counts as 150 hours toward your 100-credit cycle requirement.

Strategic Content Coverage

The PANRE Review Course covers the essential domains defined by the NCCPA Blueprint. The material is organized into logical clinical blocks, allowing you to focus on high-weight areas such as Cardiology and Pulmonary medicine while maintaining proficiency in smaller sub-specialties.

The curriculum includes:

• Emergency Medicine
• Family Medicine
• Internal Medicine & Hospitalist Medicine
• Orthopedics
• Dermatology
• Psychiatry
• Neurology
• Cardiology
• OB/GYN

Because this content is written by practicing Physician Assistants, the focus remains on clinical vignettes and diagnostic reasoning rather than abstract pathology. This approach aligns directly with the format of the PANRE and PANRE-LA, where the ability to interpret clinical data and select the next best step in management is paramount.

Maximizing Your CME Budget

Education remains a significant professional expense. We offer an efficient way to utilize your employer-provided CME funds through CME with Gift Card add-ons. When purchasing the PANRE Review Course, you can add an Amazon or Apple Gift Card ranging from $100 to $1,500.

These add-ons allow you to bundle your educational materials with tools that further enrich your practice, such as medical equipment, textbooks, or technology, all within a single CME transaction.

Clinical Assessment: Cardiovascular Medicine

Scenario:
Your patient is a 64-year-old male presenting with a 3-hour history of substernal chest pressure radiating to the left jaw. He appears diaphoretic. Vital signs show a BP of 105/65 mmHg, HR 92 bpm, and SaO2 94% on room air. An EKG reveals 3mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.

Question:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?

A) Immediate administration of IV beta-blockers
B) Emergent referral for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
C) Administration of high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
D) Observation and serial troponin levels every 6 hours

Correct Answer: B) Emergent referral for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)

Explanation:
B) Emergent referral for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is the correct management. The patient presents with clinical and EKG evidence of an inferior ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). The standard of care is immediate reperfusion therapy, with primary PCI being the preferred method if available within 90 minutes of first medical contact.

• A is incorrect because IV beta-blockers should be avoided in the acute phase of a STEMI if there are signs of heart failure, low output state, or risk for cardiogenic shock.
• C is incorrect because supplemental oxygen is only indicated if the SaO2 is <90% or the patient is in respiratory distress; hyperoxia can cause coronary vasoconstriction.
• D is incorrect because waiting for serial troponins delays definitive reperfusion therapy in the setting of a clear STEMI on EKG.

Clinical Assessment: Dermatology

Scenario:
Your patient is a 28-year-old female complaining of a pruritic rash on her elbows and knees. Physical exam reveals well-demarcated erythematous plaques with overlying silvery scale. When you attempt to remove a scale, pinpoint bleeding is noted.

Question:
What is the name of the clinical sign described by the pinpoint bleeding?

A) Auspitz sign
B) Koebner phenomenon
C) Nikolsky sign
D) Darier sign

Correct Answer: A) Auspitz sign

Explanation:
A) Auspitz sign is the correct term for the pinpoint bleeding that occurs after the removal of a psoriasis scale. This occurs because the epidermis is thinned over the elongated dermal papillae, and the capillaries within the papillae are easily ruptured.

• B is incorrect as the Koebner phenomenon refers to the development of new skin lesions at the site of trauma.
• C is incorrect as the Nikolsky sign involves the top layers of the skin slipping away from the lower layers when rubbed, typical in Pemphigus Vulgaris or SJS/TEN.
• D is incorrect as the Darier sign is the formation of a wheal upon stroking the skin, seen in mastocytosis.

Clinical Assessment: Pulmonary Medicine

Scenario:
Your patient is a 52-year-old male with a history of heavy tobacco use presenting with progressive dyspnea on exertion and a chronic productive cough. Pulmonary function testing (PFT) reveals an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.62.

Question:
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Restrictive lung disease
B) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
C) Acute Bronchitis
D) Congestive Heart Failure

Correct Answer: B) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

Explanation:
B) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is the correct diagnosis. An FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.70 post-bronchodilator confirms the presence of persistent airflow limitation, which is the hallmark of obstructive lung disease. His history of heavy smoking and chronic cough further supports this diagnosis.

• A is incorrect because restrictive lung disease typically presents with a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio and reduced total lung capacity.
• C is incorrect because acute bronchitis is a self-limiting inflammatory condition without the chronic PFT changes seen here.
• D is incorrect because while CHF causes dyspnea, it is not characterized by a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio on spirometry.

Comprehensive Review Efficiency

Preparation for the PANRE should not be a source of burnout. By utilizing the 1,600+ questions in the PANRE Review Course, you engage in active recall, which is proven to be more effective for long-term retention than passive reading.

Whether you are preparing for the traditional PANRE or participating in the PANRE-LA, having access to high-quality, PA-authored content ensures that your study time is spent on the most relevant clinical information. The ability to earn 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Credit while preparing for your exam makes this course the most efficient way to maintain your certification and expand your clinical knowledge.

For those in specific specialties like Emergency Medicine or Family Medicine, our targeted packages provide additional focus, though the comprehensive PANRE course remains the gold standard for full recertification prep.