PANRE Review Course (100 Hours of Category 1 AAPA CME)
Preparing for the PANCE or PANRE is a significant undertaking that requires more than just time; it requires a strategic approach. Many Physician Assistants and students spend hundreds of hours studying but fail to see the results they want because of fundamental errors in their preparation strategy. Whether you are a recent graduate preparing for your initial certification or a seasoned PA-C tackling the PANRE-LA, identifying and correcting these mistakes is the fastest way to ensure success.
At CME Review Courses, we provide a streamlined, PA-written curriculum designed to eliminate these common pitfalls. Here are the seven most common mistakes PAs make with their prep courses and how to fix them.
One of the most frequent mistakes is "resource overload." Students often buy three different review books, subscribe to multiple question banks (QBanks), and watch dozens of uncoordinated YouTube videos. This leads to shallow learning and "analysis paralysis," where you spend more time deciding what to study than actually learning.
The Fix: Select one primary content resource and one primary QBank. Our PANRE Review Course provides a comprehensive 100-hour review that covers all essential systems. By sticking to one authoritative source, you ensure you cover the entire NCCPA Blueprint without the confusion of conflicting explanations or redundant information.
Reading a review book or watching a video is passive learning. While it feels productive, passive reading has a low retention rate. Many PAs read 50 pages of cardiology and feel confident, only to realize two days later they cannot recall the first-line treatment for stable angina.
The Fix: Shift to active recall. After finishing a module, immediately test yourself with practice questions. Our course includes hundreds of questions designed to force your brain to retrieve information. Don't just read about a disease: solve a clinical vignette about it.
Not all systems are created equal. A common mistake is spending three days studying rare rheumatological conditions (which may only make up 4% of the exam) and only one day on Cardiology (which is 13%). If you treat every chapter with equal importance, you are misallocating your most valuable resource: your time.
The Fix: Prioritize high-yield systems. Focus your heaviest efforts on Cardiology, Pulmonary, GI, and Musculoskeletal systems. Our modules are structured to give you the depth you need where it matters most, ensuring you are prepared for the bulk of the exam content.
Many PAs know the medicine but struggle with the "boards." They misread "except," fail to identify the "most likely" diagnosis, or get distracted by irrelevant details in a long stem. Skimming questions is a recipe for silly mistakes that can cost you a passing score.
The Fix: Practice the "Final Sentence First" method. Read the actual question at the end of the vignette before reading the clinical data. This helps you filter the information as you read. During our review course, we emphasize how to break down complex stems to find the "hidden" answer.
It is easy to get bogged down in the minutiae of rare genetic disorders or third-line treatments for obscure tropical diseases. However, the PANCE and PANRE are designed to test your competence in common clinical presentations.
The Fix: Master the "Horses" first. You must know the first-line diagnostic test and first-line treatment for common conditions like CHF, Asthma, and Diabetes. Our content is written by PAs for PAs, focusing on the high-yield, real-world clinical knowledge that actually appears on the boards.
Doing 100 questions a day is useless if you only check your score and move on. The most important part of a QBank is the explanation. If you got a question right for the wrong reason, you haven't actually learned the concept.
The Fix: Read the explanation for every question: even the ones you get right. Understand why the distractors are wrong. This "exclusionary" thinking is what helps you differentiate between two very similar-looking answer choices on test day.
Many PAs wait until the last minute to use their CME stipend and end up buying a generic course that doesn't provide additional value. You are missing out on the opportunity to maximize your professional development funds.
The Fix: Use your CME stipend efficiently. We offer CME with Amazon and Apple Gift Card add-ons, allowing you to add $100 to $1,500 to your purchase. This allows you to get the 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit you need while also obtaining the tools (like a new iPad or professional books) you need for your practice.
Your patient is a 64-year-old male presenting to the emergency department with sudden onset of "ripping" chest pain that radiates to his back. His blood pressure is 190/110 mmHg, and his heart rate is 105 bpm. Physical exam reveals a new diastolic murmur. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study?
A. Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE)
B. Chest X-ray
C. CT Angiogram of the chest and abdomen
D. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Correct Answer: C. CT Angiogram of the chest and abdomen
Explanation: The clinical presentation is highly suggestive of an aortic dissection (ripping pain, hypertension, new diastolic murmur indicating aortic regurgitation). CT Angiogram is the gold standard for rapid diagnosis in a stable patient. While an ECG (D) and Chest X-ray (B) are often performed, they are not definitive for diagnosis. A TTE (A) lacks the sensitivity of a CT or Transesophageal Echo (TEE).
Your patient is a 28-year-old female who presents with a dry cough, dyspnea on exertion, and painful red nodules on her shins. A chest X-ray reveals bilateral hilar adenopathy. Laboratory results show an elevated serum ACE level. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Histoplasmosis
D. Lymphoma
Correct Answer: B. Sarcoidosis
Explanation: Sarcoidosis is the most likely diagnosis given the triad of bilateral hilar adenopathy, erythema nodosum (red nodules on shins), and elevated ACE levels. While TB (A) and Histoplasmosis (C) can cause hilar lymphadenopathy, they are less likely to present with erythema nodosum and elevated ACE. Lymphoma (D) usually presents with constitutional symptoms and more asymmetric lymphadenopathy.
Your patient is a 45-year-old female complaining of RUQ pain that occurs after eating fatty meals. The pain radiates to her right scapula. On exam, she has a positive Murphy's sign. Ultrasound shows a thickened gallbladder wall and pericholecystic fluid. What is the definitive treatment for this patient?
A. Ursodeoxycholic acid
B. Intravenous antibiotics
C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
D. Lithotripsy
Correct Answer: C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Explanation: The patient has acute cholecystitis (RUQ pain, Murphy's sign, US findings). Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the definitive treatment and should be performed within 24-48 hours of admission. Antibiotics (B) are supportive but not definitive. Ursodeoxycholic acid (A) is for dissolving small stones in patients who are not surgical candidates.
Don't let your CME stipend go to waste on inefficient courses. Our PANRE Review Course provides the 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit you need with the flexibility of a 30-month access window.
If you need focused pharmacology credits, our Pharmacology Course also offers Category 1 AAPA credit. Whether you are a PA, NP, or physician, our content: written by experts for clinicians: delivers the high-yield information you need to pass your exams and excel in clinical practice.
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