Course Title: PANRE Review Course (100 Hours of Category 1 AAPA CME)
Total Credits: 100 Category 1 AAPA Credits
Price: Starting at $499.00 (Gift card add-on packages range from $699.00 to $2,399.00)
Duration of Access: 30 Months
Deliverables: 1,672 Board-Style Multiple Choice Questions, Comprehensive Video Content, and Detailed PDF Handouts
Navigating the transition to the new NCCPA Blueprint and staying current with clinical practice requires more than just a cursory review. The Physician Assistant National Recertification Exam (PANRE) is a high-stakes assessment that demands a structured, authoritative approach to medical knowledge. Whether you are a seasoned PA-C or approaching your first recertification cycle, the efficiency of your study materials and the utility of your CME budget are paramount.
At CME Review Courses, we provide a curriculum designed by physician assistants for physician assistants. Our PANRE Review Course is specifically engineered to cover the breadth of the NCCPA Blueprint while providing the maximal amount of Category 1 credit available in a single package.
One of the most frequent discussions in PA breakrooms and online forums revolves around the strategic use of CME allowances. Most employers provide a yearly stipend for continuing education, but these funds are often "use it or lose it."
We offer an efficient way to utilize these professional development funds. Our PANRE prep courses allow for the inclusion of Amazon and Apple Gift Card add-ons. These are NOT free gifts; they are optional additions to your CME purchase ranging from $100 to $1500. By choosing a package with a gift card add-on, you can secure the 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit needed for your certification while also obtaining a gift card that can be used to purchase medical equipment, textbooks, or other educational tools to further enrich your practice.
The NCCPA requires 100 CME credits every two years, of which at least 50 must be Category 1. Our PANRE Review Course provides the full 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit in one comprehensive package. This allows you to meet your entire two-year Category 1 requirement (and then some) with a single, focused effort.
While the course is built for PAs, it is worth noting that Internal Medicine Physicians and Nurse Practitioners often find immense value here as well. For physicians, this counts as Category 2 CME. For Nurse Practitioners, the acceptance of AAPA Category 1 credit varies by state, but many utilize these hours to maintain their clinical edge in diverse fields like Emergency Medicine and Family Medicine.
Internal Medicine is a cornerstone of the NCCPA Blueprint, accounting for a significant portion of the exam. To prepare effectively, you must be able to recognize classic clinical presentations and select the gold-standard diagnostic or therapeutic intervention.
Below is a review of key Internal Medicine topics: Cardiology, Pulmonology, and Endocrinology: presented in the clinical vignette format you will encounter on the exam.
Your patient is a 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and a 40-pack-year smoking history. He presents to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath on exertion and a persistent cough. On physical examination, you note a 3/6 systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the right upper sternal border that radiates to the carotid arteries. His blood pressure is 112/90 mmHg, and his pulse is 78 bpm.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Mitral Regurgitation
B. Aortic Stenosis
C. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
D. Tricuspid Atresia
Explanation: B. Aortic Stenosis. The classic presentation of a crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the right second intercostal space radiating to the carotids is pathognomonic for Aortic Stenosis. Physical findings may also include a "pulsus parvus et tardus" (weak and late carotid upstroke). Mitral regurgitation is typically a holosystolic murmur at the apex. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) usually presents in younger patients and the murmur decreases with squatting, unlike AS.
Your patient is a 54-year-old female with a known history of COPD. She presents with an acute onset of increased sputum production and purulence, along with increased dyspnea. Her oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. Her heart rate is 105 bpm. Chest X-ray shows no acute infiltrates but does demonstrate hyperinflation and flattened diaphragms.
Which of the following interventions has been shown to decrease mortality in this patient?
A. Short-acting beta-agonists (SABA)
B. Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)
C. Continuous oxygen therapy (for patients with chronic hypoxemia)
D. Prophylactic antibiotic therapy
Explanation: C. Continuous oxygen therapy. In patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and significant hypoxemia (typically PaO2 ≤ 55 mmHg or SaO2 ≤ 88%), long-term oxygen therapy is one of the few interventions proven to improve survival. SABAs and ICS are vital for symptom management and reducing exacerbation frequency, but they do not carry the same mortality benefit as oxygen in the setting of chronic hypoxemia.
Your patient is a 42-year-old female who presents with complaints of fatigue, cold intolerance, and unintentional weight gain over the last six months. Physical exam reveals a heart rate of 56 bpm, dry skin, and delayed relaxation of the deep tendon reflexes. Laboratory results show an elevated Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) and a low free T4.
What is the most common cause of this condition in the United States?
A. Iodine deficiency
B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Graves’ disease
Explanation: B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis (Hashimoto’s) is the leading cause of primary hypothyroidism in iodine-sufficient regions like the U.S. It is an autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland. Iodine deficiency is the leading cause worldwide but is rare in developed nations. Graves’ disease causes hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism.
The content in the PANRE Review Course was written by physician assistants who have successfully navigated the recertification process. We understand that your time is limited. Our course content covers everything from Dermatology and Neurology to Orthopedics and Psychiatry.
Your patient is a 55-year-old male with diabetes and hyperlipidemia who presents to the Emergency Department with "squeezing" substernal chest pain that began 45 minutes ago. The pain radiates to his left jaw and is associated with diaphoresis. An EKG is performed immediately.
If the EKG reveals ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
A. Left Anterior Descending (LAD)
B. Left Circumflex (LCx)
C. Right Coronary Artery (RCA)
D. Left Main Coronary Artery
Explanation: C. Right Coronary Artery (RCA). ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicates an inferior wall myocardial infarction. In 80% of individuals, the RCA supplies the inferior wall of the heart. LAD occlusion typically involves the anterior wall (V1-V4), and LCx involves the lateral wall (I, aVL, V5, V6). Identifying the vessel is critical for anticipating complications, such as bradycardia or right ventricular infarction.
The PANRE Review Course is more than just a question bank. It is a comprehensive system designed to ensure you are prepared for the rigors of the NCCPA Blueprint. With 1,672 questions and 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit, it is the most efficient use of your time and CME budget.
Don't forget the flexibility of our CME gift card options. Whether you need $100 or $1500 in an Amazon or Apple add-on, you can customize your purchase to fit your needs. These options allow you to reinvest in your clinical practice while meeting your mandatory education requirements.
Get started today and secure your certification with the most trusted name in PA review.
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