If you are a physician assistant approaching your recertification cycle, the logistics of credit accumulation can be as taxing as the clinical material itself. The PANRE (Physician Assistant National Recertification Exam) requires not just a passing score, but a foundation of high-quality Continuing Medical Education (CME). This guide breaks down how to maximize your study time while optimizing your CME budget.
Course Name: PANRE Review Course CME Package
Credit Value: 100 AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME Credits
Price: $399.99 (Base Price)
Access Duration: 30 Months
Deliverables: 1,672 Board-Style Questions, Comprehensive Lecture Slides
The PANRE Review Course is designed to be the only resource you need to meet your NCCPA requirements. Earning 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME in a single package is a strategic move. Because the NCCPA applies a 50% weighting bonus to self-assessment credits, these 100 hours actually count as 150 hours toward your total requirement. This efficiency allows you to focus on clinical mastery rather than hunting for piecemeal credits across various platforms.
The content is comprehensive, covering the entire NCCPA blueprint, including high-yield topics in Internal Medicine, Emergency Medicine, and Cardiology. Whether you are a seasoned clinician or a "beginner" to the new PANRE-LA format, the question bank of over 1,600 items provides the necessary rigor to ensure success.
One of the most frequent questions we receive involves our cme gift cards program. To be clear: these are not "free" gifts. They are optional add-ons that allow you to use your employer-provided CME allowance more effectively.
When you purchase a panre review course or our Internal Medicine Hospitalist CME Package, you have the option to add an Amazon or Apple gift card to your order.
This feature is particularly beneficial for PAs with "use it or lose it" CME budgets who want to ensure they have the resources needed for their continued professional development throughout the year.
Internal Medicine comprises a significant portion of the NCCPA blueprint. Below are clinical vignettes designed to test your knowledge and prepare you for the types of questions found in our pance prep courses.
Your patient is a 72-year-old male with a history of hypertension and a 40-pack-year smoking history who presents to the clinic complaining of progressive dyspnea on exertion and a persistent non-productive cough. On physical examination, you note fine inspiratory crackles at the lung bases and a displaced apical impulse. Vital signs are: HR 94 bpm, BP 152/92 mmHg, SaO2 93% on room air. An EKG reveals left ventricular hypertrophy.
What is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup for this patient?
A) Chest X-ray
B) Serum BNP level
C) Transthoracic Echocardiogram
D) Pulmonary Function Tests
Correct Answer: C) Transthoracic Echocardiogram
An echocardiogram is the gold standard for the initial evaluation of suspected heart failure, as it allows for the assessment of ejection fraction (EF) and differentiates between heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) and heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF). While a serum BNP (Choice B) can support the diagnosis of heart failure, it does not provide the structural and functional information necessary for long-term management. A chest X-ray (Choice A) might show cardiomegaly or pulmonary congestion but lacks the sensitivity and specificity of echocardiography. Pulmonary function tests (Choice D) would be more appropriate if a primary pulmonary etiology like COPD was the leading suspicion, but the displaced apical impulse and EKG findings point strongly toward a cardiac cause.
Your patient is a 54-year-old female with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus who presents with a 3-day history of fever, chills, and a productive cough with "rust-colored" sputum. Physical exam reveals bronchial breath sounds and dullness to percussion in the right lower lobe. Vital signs are: Temp 102.1°F, HR 105 bpm, RR 24, BP 118/76 mmHg, SaO2 91% on room air. Chest X-ray confirms a right lower lobe lobar pneumonia.
According to the CURB-65 criteria, what is this patient’s score, and what is the recommended management setting?
A) Score 0; Outpatient management
B) Score 1; Outpatient management
C) Score 2; Inpatient admission
D) Score 3; ICU admission
Correct Answer: B) Score 1; Outpatient management
The CURB-65 score is calculated as follows: Confusion (0), Urea >7 mmol/L (not provided, assume 0), Respiratory rate ≥30 (0), BP <90 systolic or ≤60 diastolic (0), and Age ≥65 (0). This patient is 54 and has a RR of 24. However, the presence of hypoxia (SaO2 91%) and her comorbid diabetes must be considered clinically. Strictly following CURB-65, her score is 0 or 1. A score of 0-1 generally suggests outpatient management with oral macrolides or respiratory fluoroquinolones. Choice C and D are incorrect as they would require additional points (such as confusion, advanced age, or hemodynamic instability) which are not present in this vignette.
Your patient is a 65-year-old male with long-standing hypertension and poorly controlled diabetes. He presents for a routine follow-up. Lab work shows a serum creatinine of 2.1 mg/dL (baseline 1.8 mg/dL) and a calculated GFR of 42 mL/min/1.73m². Urinalysis reveals 2+ protein.
Which of the following medication classes is the most critical to include in this patient's regimen to slow the progression of his renal disease?
A) Loop diuretics
B) ACE Inhibitors
C) Beta-blockers
D) Calcium channel blockers
Correct Answer: B) ACE Inhibitors
ACE Inhibitors (or ARBs) are the treatment of choice for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and proteinuria, especially in the setting of diabetes. They provide renoprotective effects by dilating the efferent arteriole, which reduces intraglomerular pressure. Loop diuretics (Choice A) are used for fluid management but do not slow disease progression. Beta-blockers (Choice C) are secondary agents for hypertension and do not have specific renoprotective properties. Calcium channel blockers (Choice D), specifically non-dihydropyridines, can reduce proteinuria but are generally considered second-line to ACE inhibitors for this specific indication.
Our content is written by physician assistants for physician assistants. We understand the unique pressures of the profession and the specific requirements of the NCCPA. Whether you are using your CME funds for our Emergency Medicine Package or the primary PANRE review, you are receiving content that is clinical, relevant, and efficient.
The integration of cme gift cards ensures that you can maximize your professional development budget while securing the credits you need to maintain your certification. For PA students preparing for the PANCE or working through EOR rotations, PAtopia offers an app-based solution with 11,000+ board-style questions and free trials. Head to cmereviewcourses.com/patopia-new-student-section/ to check it out, download on the App Store, or get it on Google Play: https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.patopia.app. With 30-month access, you can study at your own pace, revisiting the 1,672 questions as many times as necessary to feel confident on exam day.
To recap, when you enroll in the PANRE Review Course, you receive:
Stay current, stay certified, and use your CME budget wisely.
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