Course Price: $2,999.99 (includes $1,500 Gift Card add-on)
Access Duration: 24 Months
Deliverables: 100 Hours of AAPA Category 1 CME Credit, 1,600+ Practice Questions
Maximizing the value of your Continuing Medical Education (CME) allowance requires a strategic approach to both credit acquisition and study material procurement. The PANRE Review Course offered by CME Review Courses provides a comprehensive 100-hour curriculum and the option to add a $1,500 Amazon or Apple gift card to your purchase. This configuration allows you to secure the required AAPA Category 1 CME credits while simultaneously funding the acquisition of high-yield clinical reference materials, such as the Ultimate PA Study Suite.
The integration of a high-value gift card into a CME package serves as a practical solution for clinicians who need to update their professional library. By selecting the $1,500 Amazon Gift Card add-on, you effectively allocate your employer-provided CME funds toward educational tools that extend beyond the digital course interface. This allows for the purchase of physical textbooks and clinical equipment that are essential for daily practice and long-term board preparation.
The Ultimate PA Study Suite consists of two core pillars of medical knowledge designed specifically for the Physician Assistant: the Comprehensive PANCE Review Book and the Comprehensive Guide to EKGs: Rhythms, 12-Leads, and Clinical Patterns at the Bedside. These resources are written by Jeremy Boroff, PA-C, ensuring the content is tailored to the specific needs of PA practice and national certification exams.
This text serves as a centralized repository of clinical knowledge, covering the NCCPA Blueprint topics with a focus on high-yield information. It is designed to be used in conjunction with the PANRE Review Course, providing a physical reference to annotate while progressing through the 1,600+ practice questions.
Electrocardiogram interpretation remains a critical skill in emergency medicine, internal medicine, and cardiology. This guide focuses on bedside application, moving beyond basic rhythm recognition to advanced 12-lead interpretation and clinical pattern recognition. Utilizing your gift card to acquire this text ensures you have a permanent clinical reference for acute care settings.
The most efficient use of the PANRE Review Course involves a multi-modal study plan. While the course provides 100 hours of AAPA Category 1 credit: fulfilling your entire NCCPA cycle requirement: the addition of the $1,500 gift card allows you to purchase the Ultimate PA Study Suite to reinforce the material.
This method ensures that your CME budget is utilized for both immediate credit needs and long-term clinical utility.
Your patient is a 64-year-old male presenting with a 2-hour history of substernal chest pressure and diaphoresis. He has a history of hypertension and tobacco use. Vital signs: HR 92, BP 148/94, SaO2 96% on room air. An EKG is performed and shows 3mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF with reciprocal changes in I and aVL.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Perform a posterior EKG (V7-V9)
B. Administer a 324mg loading dose of aspirin and activate the cath lab
C. Order a STAT Troponin I and wait for results before intervention
D. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin and monitor for pain relief
Explanation: B. Administer a 324mg loading dose of aspirin and activate the cath lab. This patient is presenting with an inferior wall ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Standard of care requires immediate antiplatelet therapy and reperfusion therapy, preferably via percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) within 90 minutes. A is incorrect as a posterior EKG is used for suspected posterior MI (ST-depression in V1-V3), not clear inferior STEMI. C is incorrect because reperfusion should not be delayed for cardiac enzyme results in the presence of diagnostic EKG changes. D is a potential adjunct, but given the inferior wall involvement, nitroglycerin should be used with extreme caution to avoid profound hypotension if right ventricular involvement is present; it is not the definitive next step over aspirin and reperfusion activation.
Your patient is a 28-year-old female complaining of a "racing heart" that started suddenly while she was sitting at her desk. She denies chest pain or shortness of breath. Vital signs: HR 175 (regular), BP 118/76, SaO2 99%. The EKG reveals a narrow-complex tachycardia with no visible P waves. Vagal maneuvers were unsuccessful.
Which of the following is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for this patient?
A. Adenosine 6mg rapid IV push
B. Verapamil 5mg IV
C. Metoprolol 5mg IV
D. Amiodarone 150mg IV over 10 minutes
Explanation: A. Adenosine 6mg rapid IV push. The patient is presenting with stable supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). Adenosine is the first-line pharmacologic agent due to its short half-life and high efficacy in terminating AV nodal re-entrant tachycardias. B and C (Calcium channel blockers and Beta-blockers) are second-line agents if adenosine fails or is contraindicated. D (Amiodarone) is typically reserved for ventricular arrhythmias or refractory atrial fibrillation, not first-line for stable SVT.
Your patient is a 72-year-old female with a history of chronic atrial fibrillation who presents with sudden onset left-sided weakness and facial drooping. Her symptoms began 45 minutes ago. Vital signs: BP 190/110, HR 88 (irregular), SaO2 95%. A non-contrast CT head shows no evidence of intracranial hemorrhage.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A. Initiate IV heparin infusion
B. Administer IV alteplase (tPA)
C. Lower blood pressure to <140/90 using IV labetalol
D. Repeat the CT scan in 6 hours to check for evolving infarct
Explanation: B. Administer IV alteplase (tPA). This patient is within the 3-hour (and 4.5-hour) window for thrombolytic therapy in the setting of an acute ischemic stroke with no contraindications on CT. A is incorrect as heparin is not indicated for the acute treatment of ischemic stroke and increases bleeding risk. C is incorrect because in candidates for tPA, the BP goal is <185/110; lowering it too aggressively can worsen penumbral ischemia. D is incorrect because waiting for follow-up imaging delays definitive treatment that is time-sensitive.
Integrating your CME benefits with high-quality study materials ensures you remain current in your clinical practice while satisfying regulatory requirements. The PANRE Review Course with a $1,500 Amazon gift card provides the necessary framework to achieve these goals efficiently. Explore our packages today to maximize your 2026 CME budget.
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