Managing your continuing medical education (CME) requirements while working high-acuity shifts in the emergency department requires efficiency. You need content that aligns with the NCCPA Blueprint and a distribution method that maximizes your employer-provided benefits.
Price: $399.99 (Base course)
Duration: 30 months of access
Deliverables: 100 AAPA Category 1 Self-Assessment CME Credits and 1,672 board-style questions
For physician assistants, the PANRE Review Course offers a strategic advantage. While the credits are designated as AAPA Category 1, the NCCPA applies a 50% additional weighting when these self-assessment credits are logged. This means your 100-hour investment automatically converts to 150 hours toward your certification maintenance.
We provide an efficient way to utilize your CME allowance. When you purchase the PANRE Review Course or the Emergency Medicine CME Package, you have the option to add on a gift card ranging from $100 to $1,500.
The total cost is bundled into one transparent price, allowing you to enrich your professional education while securing a bonus that can be used for medical equipment, texts, or personal resources.
The curriculum is written by physician assistants for physician assistants, focusing on the high-yield topics encountered in acute care. The content covers the breadth of clinical medicine, including:
While the primary focus is on PA recertification, nurse practitioners often find value in our packages. Many state boards and the AANP accept AAPA Category 1 credits for NP license renewal. Physicians can also utilize these courses to claim Category 2 CME.
Testing your knowledge through active recall is the most effective way to prepare for the PANRE or daily clinical practice. Below are three high-yield vignettes designed to mirror the difficulty level of the national boards.
Patient Demographics and History:
Your patient is a 64-year-old male presenting to the emergency department with a 2-hour history of substernal chest pressure that radiates to the left jaw. He appears diaphoretic and pale. He has a history of hypertension and tobacco use (30 pack-years).
Vital Signs:
Clinical Scenario:
An EKG is performed immediately, revealing 3mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF with reciprocal changes in I and aVL. The nearest percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) center is 20 minutes away.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Administer fibrinolytic therapy immediately
B) Perform a stat bedside echocardiogram
C) Activate the cardiac catheterization lab for primary PCI
D) Administer 324 mg of aspirin and repeat the EKG in 30 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Activate the cardiac catheterization lab for primary PCI. This patient is presenting with an inferior wall ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Clinical guidelines dictate that primary PCI is the preferred reperfusion strategy if it can be performed within 90 minutes of first medical contact at a PCI-capable hospital (or 120 minutes if transfer is required). Since the PCI center is only 20 minutes away, fibrinolytic therapy (Option A) is not indicated. Repeating an EKG in 30 minutes (Option D) causes unnecessary delay in a "time-is-muscle" scenario. While an echo (Option B) may show wall motion abnormalities, it should not delay definitive reperfusion.
Patient Demographics and History:
Your patient is a 28-year-old female who was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision (MVC). she sustained a closed comminuted fracture of the right mid-shaft tibia. She underwent intramedullary nailing 6 hours ago. The nursing staff calls you because the patient is complaining of worsening pain that is "out of proportion" to the injury and is not responding to escalating doses of IV morphine.
Vital Signs:
Clinical Scenario:
On physical examination, the right lower leg is tense and exquisitely tender to palpation. There is significant pain with passive extension of the great toe. Distal pulses (DP and PT) are 2+ and the foot is warm.
What is the definitive treatment for this condition?
A) Increase the dose of IV narcotics and elevate the limb
B) Immediate surgical fasciotomy of the involved compartments
C) Application of a bivalved plaster cast
D) Measurement of intracompartmental pressures to confirm the diagnosis
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Immediate surgical fasciotomy of the involved compartments. This patient is demonstrating the classic signs of acute compartment syndrome, specifically "pain out of proportion to injury" and pain with passive stretch. While measurement of intracompartmental pressures (Option D) can be a helpful adjunct, it is not required when the clinical suspicion is this high and can delay definitive treatment. Elevation (Option A) is actually contraindicated as it can further decrease capillary perfusion pressure. Fasciotomy is the only definitive treatment to prevent irreversible muscle and nerve ischemia.
Patient Demographics and History:
Your patient is a 19-year-old college student brought to the ED by his roommates. He has a 12-hour history of high fever, headache, and increasing lethargy. He has no significant past medical history.
Vital Signs:
Clinical Scenario:
On exam, the patient is difficult to arouse. He has a positive Brudzinski sign and a petechial rash noted on his lower extremities and trunk.
After initiating aggressive fluid resuscitation and ordering a CT of the head, which of the following is the most critical next step?
A) Perform a lumbar puncture immediately
B) Administer IV vancomycin, ceftriaxone, and dexamethasone
C) Wait for CT results before administering any antibiotics
D) Obtain blood cultures and wait for the results to tailor therapy
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Administer IV vancomycin, ceftriaxone, and dexamethasone. In cases of suspected bacterial meningitis (suggested by the triad of fever, altered mental status, and nuchal rigidity plus a petechial rash), antibiotic administration should not be delayed for diagnostic imaging or lumbar puncture (Option C and D). Dexamethasone is administered with or just before the first dose of antibiotics to reduce the inflammatory response and decrease the risk of neurologic sequelae, such as hearing loss. While a lumbar puncture (Option A) is necessary for a definitive diagnosis, "door-to-antibiotic" time is the most significant predictor of outcome in meningococcal disease.
In the current healthcare environment, administrative tasks often consume more time than patient care. We designed our CME with gift card packages to simplify your life. If you have an annual CME stipend that must be used or lost, selecting the $1,500 add-on allows you to fully utilize those funds.
Many PAs use these gift cards to purchase:
By choosing the PANRE Review Course, you are investing in a high-yield curriculum that ensures you remain competent in the ever-evolving field of emergency medicine while checking off your 100-hour requirement in one streamlined package.
This course stands out because it offers 30 months of access. Most competitors restrict access to 6 or 12 months. In the emergency department, where schedules are unpredictable and burnout is a reality, having the flexibility to study over a longer period is a pragmatic advantage.
Whether you are preparing for the traditional PANRE or the PANRE-LA (Longitudinal Assessment), the 1,672 practice questions provide the repetition needed to master the NCCPA Blueprint.
Ready to maximize your CME?
Visit our PANRE Review Course with Gift Card page to select your package and secure your $1500 Amazon Gift Card today.
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