Price: $399.99
CME Credit: 100 Hours of Category 1 AAPA Credit
Access: 30 Months
Deliverables: 1,672 Practice Questions, Comprehensive Blueprint Review, Gift Card Add-on Options ($100 – $1,500)
Maintaining certification is a clinical necessity, but it should not disrupt your practice or personal life. The Physician Assistant National Recertification Exam Longitudinal Assessment (PANRE-LA) provides a more flexible alternative to the traditional high-stakes exam, yet many PAs find themselves overwhelmed by the ongoing nature of the assessment. The most efficient strategy for success involves a structured, weekly framework that prioritizes high-yield content over bulk studying.
Our PANRE Review Course is designed specifically to support this longitudinal approach. By focusing on the NCCPA blueprint and utilizing the 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit included in the course, you can fulfill your CME requirements while systematically preparing for each quarterly set of questions.
The PANRE-LA consists of 25 questions every quarter. If you approach these questions without a plan, you risk burnout or lower-than-desired scores. A 60-minute weekly framework allows for consistent exposure to clinical material without the need for intensive "cramming."
Spend the first half of your weekly hour reviewing a specific blueprint section. For example, focusing on the Cardiovascular Blueprint or Pulmonary Blueprint ensures you are refreshing your knowledge in the areas most likely to appear in the assessment. This targeted review prevents the common pitfall of studying topics that are clinically irrelevant to the recertification blueprint.
Utilize the 1,672 practice questions included in the PANRE Review Course. Answering 10 to 15 questions per week mimics the pace required for the PANRE-LA. Because the PANRE-LA provides immediate feedback, practicing with similar clinical vignettes prepares your mind for the specific question structure used by the NCCPA.
Efficiency extends to how you utilize your employer-provided CME budget. Many PAs leave money on the table at the end of the year. Our CME with Gift Card options allow you to add an Amazon or Apple gift card ($100 to $1,500) to your purchase. This enables you to upgrade your clinical technology: such as a new iPad for patient education: while simultaneously securing your board review materials and 100 hours of Category 1 AAPA credit.
Physician assistants wrote this content for physician assistants. While nurse practitioners, CRNAs, and physicians find value in these packages, the PANRE Review Course is explicitly tailored to the PA profession's unique recertification requirements.
The following scenarios represent the type of content found in our comprehensive review and common clinical presentations encountered in practice.
Your patient is a 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia who presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset palpitations and lightheadedness. His heart rate is 145 bpm, BP is 102/68 mmHg, and SaO2 is 98% on room air. The EKG reveals an irregular rhythm with no discernible P waves and narrow QRS complexes.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacological intervention for rate control in this hemodynamically stable patient?
A. Adenosine
B. Diltiazem
C. Amiodarone
D. Synchronized cardioversion
Correct Answer: B. Diltiazem
Diltiazem is a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker and is a first-line agent for rate control in atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response (RVR) in hemodynamically stable patients. Adenosine is used for stable supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with a regular rhythm. Amiodarone is typically reserved for rhythm control or patients with heart failure. Synchronized cardioversion is indicated if the patient is hemodynamically unstable (e.g., hypotension, altered mental status, or acute pulmonary edema).
Your patient is a 24-year-old female who presents with knee pain after an injury during a soccer game. She describes a "popping" sensation followed by immediate swelling. On examination, the Lachman test is positive, and there is a significant anterior translation of the tibia compared to the femur.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) tear
B. Meniscal tear
C. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
D. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear
Correct Answer: C. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
An ACL tear classically presents with a "pop" and immediate effusion (hemarthrosis). The Lachman test is the most sensitive physical exam maneuver for confirming an ACL injury. MCL tears usually involve valgus stress and localized pain. Meniscal tears often present with delayed swelling and mechanical symptoms like locking or catching. PCL tears are less common and typically involve a "dashboard injury" with a positive posterior drawer test. For further review of these injuries, see our Musculoskeletal Blueprint.
Your patient is a 42-year-old male presenting with a pruritic rash on his wrists and ankles. On physical examination, you observe flat-topped, purple, polygonal papules. Fine white lines are visible on the surface of some lesions.
What are these fine white lines called, and what condition are they associated with?
A. Herald patch; Pityriasis rosea
B. Wickham striae; Lichen planus
C. Auspitz sign; Psoriasis
D. Nikolsky sign; Pemphigus vulgaris
Correct Answer: B. Wickham striae; Lichen planus
Wickham striae are characteristic of Lichen planus, which is often described using the "6 Ps": planar (flat-topped), purple, polygonal, pruritic, papules, and plaques. A herald patch is the initial lesion of pityriasis rosea. Auspitz sign refers to pinpoint bleeding after scales are removed in psoriasis. Nikolsky sign is the sloughing of skin with light pressure, seen in pemphigus vulgaris.
Your patient is a 55-year-old male smoker with a history of COPD who presents with increased shortness of breath and a productive cough with green sputum for three days. His vitals are: HR 92, RR 22, Temp 100.8°F, and SaO2 89% on room air. Physical exam reveals bilateral wheezing and decreased breath sounds at the bases.
In addition to inhaled bronchodilators, which of the following is most indicated for this patient's acute exacerbation?
A. High-dose IV loop diuretics
B. Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)
C. Systemic corticosteroids and antibiotics
D. Immediate intubation
Correct Answer: C. Systemic corticosteroids and antibiotics
The management of an acute COPD exacerbation includes short-acting bronchodilators, systemic corticosteroids to reduce inflammation, and antibiotics if there is increased sputum purulence or volume. IV diuretics are for heart failure, not COPD. LTOT is for chronic management of stable patients meeting specific oxygen criteria. Intubation is reserved for patients with severe respiratory failure or altered mental status not responsive to non-invasive ventilation.
Using the PANRE Review Course allows you to segment your learning into these manageable sessions. Because our course is valid for 30 months, it covers the entire duration of your longitudinal assessment period. This ensures you have access to the latest clinical guidelines and updated practice questions whenever a new quarter begins.
The focus of the PANRE-LA is on clinical application rather than rote memorization. By utilizing a "60 minutes a week" framework, you transition from "studying for a test" to "continuous clinical improvement." This approach not only secures your certification but also enhances the care you provide to your patients.
Logistics recap:
By selecting our PANRE Review Course, you are choosing a resource built by PAs for PAs. We understand the clinical demands of your role and provide the most efficient path to recertification.
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